Schedules and Sections of Indian Constitution
This comprehensive guide offers 425 multiple-choice questions on the Schedules and Sections of the Indian Constitution. Each question is exam-style with correct answers and explanations, covering all 12 Schedules, key Articles, landmark Amendments, and major case laws. Designed for UPSC, SSC, State PSC, law exams, and academic study, this set ensures complete coverage, clarity, and authenticity. Readers will gain a structured, modular resource that is both exam-ready and SEO-optimized for quick learning and revision.
✅ A) 8
B) 10
C) 12
D) 14
Explanation: The Constitution of 1950 had 8 Schedules; later expanded to 12.
Q2. How many Schedules are there in the Indian Constitution today?
✅ A) 12
B) 10
C) 8
D) 14
Explanation: Currently, 12 Schedules exist after successive amendments.
Q3. How many Articles were there originally in the Constitution?
✅ A) 395
B) 470
C) 380
D) 400
Explanation: The original Constitution had 395 Articles.
Q4. How many Articles are there in the Constitution today (approx.)?
✅ A) 470+
B) 395
C) 450
D) 500
Explanation: After amendments, Articles have expanded to 470+.
Q5. Which Schedule deals with the names of States and Union Territories?
✅ A) First Schedule
B) Second Schedule
C) Third Schedule
D) Fourth Schedule
Explanation: First Schedule lists States and UTs.
Q6. Which Schedule deals with salaries of constitutional authorities?
✅ A) Second Schedule
B) First Schedule
C) Fourth Schedule
D) Fifth Schedule
Explanation: Second Schedule covers salaries and allowances.
Q7. Which Schedule contains forms of oath and affirmation?
✅ A) Third Schedule
B) Second Schedule
C) Fourth Schedule
D) Fifth Schedule
Explanation: Third Schedule prescribes oath formats.
Q8. Which Schedule allocates seats in Rajya Sabha?
✅ A) Fourth Schedule
B) Fifth Schedule
C) Sixth Schedule
D) Seventh Schedule
Explanation: Fourth Schedule allocates Rajya Sabha seats.
Q9. Which Schedule deals with administration of Scheduled Areas and Tribes?
✅ A) Fifth Schedule
B) Sixth Schedule
C) Seventh Schedule
D) Ninth Schedule
Explanation: Fifth Schedule covers Scheduled Areas and Tribes.
Q10. Which Schedule deals with tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram?
✅ A) Sixth Schedule
B) Fifth Schedule
C) Seventh Schedule
D) Ninth Schedule
Explanation: Sixth Schedule provides for Autonomous District Councils.
Q11. Which Schedule contains Union, State, and Concurrent Lists?
✅ A) Seventh Schedule
B) Sixth Schedule
C) Fifth Schedule
D) Ninth Schedule
Explanation: Seventh Schedule distributes legislative powers.
Q12. Which Schedule lists official languages?
✅ A) Eighth Schedule
B) Ninth Schedule
C) Tenth Schedule
D) Eleventh Schedule
Explanation: Eighth Schedule lists 22 official languages.
Q13. Which Schedule protects laws from judicial review?
✅ A) Ninth Schedule
B) Tenth Schedule
C) Eleventh Schedule
D) Twelfth Schedule
Explanation: Ninth Schedule was added by 1st Amendment.
Q14. Which Schedule contains the Anti‑Defection Law?
✅ A) Tenth Schedule
B) Ninth Schedule
C) Eleventh Schedule
D) Twelfth Schedule
Explanation: Tenth Schedule added by 52nd Amendment.
Q15. Which Schedule lists Panchayati Raj powers?
✅ A) Eleventh Schedule
B) Twelfth Schedule
C) Ninth Schedule
D) Seventh Schedule
Explanation: Eleventh Schedule lists 29 subjects.
Q16. Which Schedule lists Municipalities powers?
✅ A) Twelfth Schedule
B) Eleventh Schedule
C) Ninth Schedule
D) Seventh Schedule
Explanation: Twelfth Schedule lists 18 subjects.
Q17. Which Amendment added Ninth Schedule?
✅ A) First Amendment (1951)
B) 42nd Amendment
C) 44th Amendment
D) 52nd Amendment
Explanation: Ninth Schedule added by 1st Amendment.
Q18. Which Amendment added Tenth Schedule?
✅ A) 52nd Amendment (1985)
B) 42nd Amendment
C) 44th Amendment
D) 73rd Amendment
Explanation: Anti‑defection law added by 52nd Amendment.
Q19. Which Amendment added Eleventh Schedule?
✅ A) 73rd Amendment (1992)
B) 74th Amendment
C) 42nd Amendment
D) 44th Amendment
Explanation: Panchayati Raj powers added by 73rd Amendment.
Q20. Which Amendment added Twelfth Schedule?
✅ A) 74th Amendment (1992)
B) 73rd Amendment
C) 42nd Amendment
D) 44th Amendment
Explanation: Municipalities powers added by 74th Amendment.
Q21. Which Schedule was expanded to include more languages?
✅ A) Eighth Schedule
B) Seventh Schedule
C) Ninth Schedule
D) Tenth Schedule
Explanation: Eighth Schedule expanded from 14 to 22 languages.
Q22. Which case declared Ninth Schedule laws subject to judicial review?
✅ A) I.R. Coelho vs State of Tamil Nadu (2007)
B) Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
C) Minerva Mills (1980)
D) Golaknath (1967)
Explanation: I.R. Coelho case reviewed Ninth Schedule laws.
Q23. Which case upheld Anti‑Defection Law?
✅ A) Kihoto Hollohan vs Zachillhu (1992)
B) Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
C) Minerva Mills (1980)
D) Indira Gandhi vs Raj Narain (1975)
Explanation: Kihoto Hollohan case upheld Tenth Schedule.
Q24. Which Amendment added Konkani, Manipuri, Nepali to Eighth Schedule?
✅ A) 71st Amendment (1992)
B) 92nd Amendment
C) 21st Amendment
D) 100th Amendment
Explanation: 71st Amendment added these languages.
Q25. Which Amendment added Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, Santhali to Eighth Schedule?
✅ A) 92nd Amendment (2003)
B) 71st Amendment
C) 21st Amendment
D) 100th Amendment
Explanation: 92nd Amendment added four languages.
Q26. First Schedule of the Constitution deals with:
✅ A) Names of States and Union Territories
B) Salaries of constitutional authorities
C) Forms of oath and affirmation
D) Allocation of Rajya Sabha seats
Explanation: First Schedule lists States and Union Territories.
Q27. How many States were listed in the First Schedule originally (1950)?
✅ A) 14
B) 20
C) 25
D) 28
Explanation: Originally, 14 States were listed.
Q28. How many Union Territories were listed originally in 1950?
✅ A) 6
B) 5
C) 7
D) 8
Explanation: 6 Union Territories were listed initially.
Q29. How many States are listed in the First Schedule today?
✅ A) 28
B) 29
C) 27
D) 30
Explanation: Currently, 28 States are listed.
Q30. How many Union Territories are listed today?
✅ A) 8
B) 7
C) 6
D) 9
Explanation: After J&K reorganisation, 8 Union Territories exist.
Q31. Which Amendment created the State of Andhra Pradesh (1953)?
✅ A) 7th Amendment
B) 1st Amendment
C) 42nd Amendment
D) 44th Amendment
Explanation: Andhra Pradesh created in 1953, formalised by 7th Amendment.
Q32. Which Amendment reorganised States on linguistic basis (1956)?
✅ A) 7th Amendment
B) 42nd Amendment
C) 44th Amendment
D) 73rd Amendment
Explanation: 7th Amendment reorganised States linguistically.
Q33. Which State was created in 1960 by bifurcating Bombay?
✅ A) Maharashtra and Gujarat
B) Punjab and Haryana
C) Andhra and Telangana
D) None of the above
Explanation: Bombay split into Maharashtra and Gujarat.
Q34. Which State was created in 1966 by bifurcating Punjab?
✅ A) Haryana
B) Himachal Pradesh
C) Uttarakhand
D) Jharkhand
Explanation: Haryana created in 1966.
Q35. Which State was created in 1972 from Assam?
✅ A) Meghalaya
B) Mizoram
C) Tripura
D) Nagaland
Explanation: Meghalaya carved out of Assam in 1972.
Q36. Which State was created in 1975?
✅ A) Sikkim
B) Arunachal Pradesh
C) Goa
D) Nagaland
Explanation: Sikkim became a State in 1975.
Q37. Which State was created in 1987?
✅ A) Goa
B) Arunachal Pradesh
C) Mizoram
D) All of the above
Explanation: Goa, Arunachal Pradesh, and Mizoram became States in 1987.
Q38. Which State was created in 2000 from Bihar?
✅ A) Jharkhand
B) Chhattisgarh
C) Uttarakhand
D) Telangana
Explanation: Jharkhand created in 2000.
Q39. Which State was created in 2000 from Madhya Pradesh?
✅ A) Chhattisgarh
B) Jharkhand
C) Uttarakhand
D) Telangana
Explanation: Chhattisgarh created in 2000.
Q40. Which State was created in 2000 from Uttar Pradesh?
✅ A) Uttarakhand
B) Jharkhand
C) Chhattisgarh
D) Telangana
Explanation: Uttarakhand created in 2000.
Q41. Which State was created in 2014 from Andhra Pradesh?
✅ A) Telangana
B) Uttarakhand
C) Jharkhand
D) Chhattisgarh
Explanation: Telangana created in 2014.
Q42. Which Amendment reorganised Jammu & Kashmir into two Union Territories (2019)?
✅ A) J&K Reorganisation Act, 2019
B) 42nd Amendment
C) 44th Amendment
D) 73rd Amendment
Explanation: J&K split into J&K and Ladakh UTs in 2019.
Q43. Which Union Territory was merged with Puducherry in 2006?
✅ A) Yanam
B) Dadra & Nagar Haveli
C) Daman & Diu
D) None of the above
Explanation: Yanam is part of Puducherry UT.
Q44. Which Union Territories were merged in 2020?
✅ A) Dadra & Nagar Haveli and Daman & Diu
B) Lakshadweep and Andaman & Nicobar
C) Delhi and Chandigarh
D) None of the above
Explanation: Dadra & Nagar Haveli merged with Daman & Diu in 2020.
Q45. Which Union Territory has a legislature?
✅ A) Delhi and Puducherry
B) Chandigarh
C) Lakshadweep
D) Andaman & Nicobar
Explanation: Delhi and Puducherry have legislatures.
Q46. Which Union Territory is directly under President’s rule through Administrator?
✅ A) Chandigarh
B) Delhi
C) Puducherry
D) None of the above
Explanation: Chandigarh is administered directly by President.
Q47. Which Union Territory was converted into a State in 1987?
✅ A) Goa
B) Mizoram
C) Arunachal Pradesh
D) All of the above
Explanation: Goa became a State in 1987.
Q48. Which Union Territory was converted into a State in 1972?
✅ A) Manipur and Tripura
B) Nagaland
C) Meghalaya
D) Mizoram
Explanation: Manipur and Tripura became States in 1972.
Q49. Which Union Territory was converted into a State in 1963?
✅ A) Nagaland
B) Mizoram
C) Arunachal Pradesh
D) Tripura
Explanation: Nagaland became a State in 1963.
Q50. Which Union Territory was converted into a State in 1975?
✅ A) Sikkim
B) Goa
C) Arunachal Pradesh
D) Mizoram
Explanation: Sikkim became a State in 1975.
Q51. Second Schedule of the Constitution deals with:
✅ A) Salaries and allowances of constitutional authorities
B) Names of States and UTs
C) Forms of oath and affirmation
D) Allocation of Rajya Sabha seats
Explanation: Second Schedule specifies salaries, allowances, and privileges.
Q52. Whose salary is mentioned in the Second Schedule?
✅ A) President of India
B) Prime Minister
C) Members of Parliament
D) Chief Ministers
Explanation: Salary of President is covered in Second Schedule.
Q53. Salary of Governors is mentioned in:
✅ A) Second Schedule
B) First Schedule
C) Third Schedule
D) Fourth Schedule
Explanation: Governors’ salaries are listed in Second Schedule.
Q54. Salaries of Judges of Supreme Court are mentioned in:
✅ A) Second Schedule
B) Third Schedule
C) Fourth Schedule
D) Fifth Schedule
Explanation: Judges’ salaries are covered in Second Schedule.
Q55. Salaries of Judges of High Courts are mentioned in:
✅ A) Second Schedule
B) Third Schedule
C) Fourth Schedule
D) Fifth Schedule
Explanation: High Court Judges’ salaries are also in Second Schedule.
Q56. Salaries of Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) are mentioned in:
✅ A) Second Schedule
B) Third Schedule
C) Fourth Schedule
D) Fifth Schedule
Explanation: CAG’s salary is listed in Second Schedule.
Q57. Salaries of Chairman and Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha are mentioned in:
✅ A) Second Schedule
B) Third Schedule
C) Fourth Schedule
D) Fifth Schedule
Explanation: Rajya Sabha presiding officers’ salaries are in Second Schedule.
Q58. Salaries of Speaker and Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha are mentioned in:
✅ A) Second Schedule
B) Third Schedule
C) Fourth Schedule
D) Fifth Schedule
Explanation: Lok Sabha presiding officers’ salaries are in Second Schedule.
Q59. Salaries of Chairman and Deputy Chairman of State Legislative Councils are mentioned in:
✅ A) Second Schedule
B) Third Schedule
C) Fourth Schedule
D) Fifth Schedule
Explanation: State Legislative Council presiding officers’ salaries are in Second Schedule.
Q60. Salaries of Speaker and Deputy Speaker of State Legislative Assemblies are mentioned in:
✅ A) Second Schedule
B) Third Schedule
C) Fourth Schedule
D) Fifth Schedule
Explanation: State Assembly presiding officers’ salaries are in Second Schedule.
Q61. Which Schedule mentions allowances of constitutional authorities?
✅ A) Second Schedule
B) First Schedule
C) Third Schedule
D) Fourth Schedule
Explanation: Allowances are also covered in Second Schedule.
Q62. Which Schedule mentions privileges of constitutional authorities?
✅ A) Second Schedule
B) First Schedule
C) Third Schedule
D) Fourth Schedule
Explanation: Privileges are listed in Second Schedule.
Q63. Which Schedule mentions emoluments of Election Commissioners?
✅ A) Second Schedule
B) Third Schedule
C) Fourth Schedule
D) Fifth Schedule
Explanation: Election Commissioners’ emoluments are in Second Schedule.
Q64. Which Schedule mentions emoluments of Chairman and Members of UPSC?
✅ A) Second Schedule
B) Third Schedule
C) Fourth Schedule
D) Fifth Schedule
Explanation: UPSC members’ emoluments are in Second Schedule.
Q65. Which Schedule mentions emoluments of State PSC members?
✅ A) Second Schedule
B) Third Schedule
C) Fourth Schedule
D) Fifth Schedule
Explanation: State PSC members’ emoluments are in Second Schedule.
Q66. Which Schedule mentions emoluments of Attorney General of India?
✅ A) Second Schedule
B) Third Schedule
C) Fourth Schedule
D) Fifth Schedule
Explanation: Attorney General’s emoluments are in Second Schedule.
Q67. Which Schedule mentions emoluments of Advocate General of State?
✅ A) Second Schedule
B) Third Schedule
C) Fourth Schedule
D) Fifth Schedule
Explanation: Advocate General’s emoluments are in Second Schedule.
Q68. Which Schedule mentions emoluments of Comptroller and Auditor General?
✅ A) Second Schedule
B) Third Schedule
C) Fourth Schedule
D) Fifth Schedule
Explanation: CAG’s emoluments are in Second Schedule.
Q69. Which Schedule mentions emoluments of President’s staff?
✅ A) Second Schedule
B) Third Schedule
C) Fourth Schedule
D) Fifth Schedule
Explanation: President’s staff allowances are covered in Second Schedule.
Q70. Which Schedule mentions emoluments of Governors’ staff?
✅ A) Second Schedule
B) Third Schedule
C) Fourth Schedule
D) Fifth Schedule
Explanation: Governors’ staff allowances are covered in Second Schedule.
Q71. Which Schedule mentions emoluments of Judges’ staff?
✅ A) Second Schedule
B) Third Schedule
C) Fourth Schedule
D) Fifth Schedule
Explanation: Judges’ staff allowances are covered in Second Schedule.
Q72. Which Schedule mentions emoluments of CAG’s staff?
✅ A) Second Schedule
B) Third Schedule
C) Fourth Schedule
D) Fifth Schedule
Explanation: CAG’s staff allowances are covered in Second Schedule.
Q73. Which Schedule mentions emoluments of UPSC staff?
✅ A) Second Schedule
B) Third Schedule
C) Fourth Schedule
D) Fifth Schedule
Explanation: UPSC staff allowances are covered in Second Schedule.
Q74. Which Schedule mentions emoluments of State PSC staff?
✅ A) Second Schedule
B) Third Schedule
C) Fourth Schedule
D) Fifth Schedule
Explanation: State PSC staff allowances are covered in Second Schedule.
Q75. Which Schedule mentions emoluments of Election Commission staff?
✅ A) Second Schedule
B) Third Schedule
C) Fourth Schedule
D) Fifth Schedule
Explanation: Election Commission staff allowances are covered in Second Schedule.
Q76. Third Schedule of the Constitution deals with:
✅ A) Forms of oath and affirmation
B) Salaries of constitutional authorities
C) Allocation of Rajya Sabha seats
D) Administration of Scheduled Areas
Explanation: Third Schedule prescribes oath formats for constitutional offices.
Q77. Who administers the oath to the President of India?
✅ A) Chief Justice of India
B) Prime Minister
C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
D) Vice President
Explanation: Chief Justice of India administers the oath to the President.
Q78. Who administers the oath to the Governor of a State?
✅ A) Chief Justice of High Court
B) President of India
C) Prime Minister
D) Speaker of Assembly
Explanation: Chief Justice of the High Court administers the oath to the Governor.
Q79. Oath of office for Union Ministers is mentioned in:
✅ A) Third Schedule
B) Second Schedule
C) Fourth Schedule
D) Fifth Schedule
Explanation: Union Ministers’ oath is prescribed in Third Schedule.
Q80. Oath of office for Members of Parliament is mentioned in:
✅ A) Third Schedule
B) Second Schedule
C) Fourth Schedule
D) Fifth Schedule
Explanation: MPs’ oath is prescribed in Third Schedule.
Q81. Oath of office for Judges of Supreme Court is mentioned in:
✅ A) Third Schedule
B) Second Schedule
C) Fourth Schedule
D) Fifth Schedule
Explanation: Supreme Court Judges’ oath is prescribed in Third Schedule.
Q82. Oath of office for Judges of High Courts is mentioned in:
✅ A) Third Schedule
B) Second Schedule
C) Fourth Schedule
D) Fifth Schedule
Explanation: High Court Judges’ oath is prescribed in Third Schedule.
Q83. Oath of office for Comptroller and Auditor General is mentioned in:
✅ A) Third Schedule
B) Second Schedule
C) Fourth Schedule
D) Fifth Schedule
Explanation: CAG’s oath is prescribed in Third Schedule.
Q84. Oath of office for Members of State Legislature is mentioned in:
✅ A) Third Schedule
B) Second Schedule
C) Fourth Schedule
D) Fifth Schedule
Explanation: State Legislature members’ oath is prescribed in Third Schedule.
Q85. Oath of office for Ministers in States is mentioned in:
✅ A) Third Schedule
B) Second Schedule
C) Fourth Schedule
D) Fifth Schedule
Explanation: State Ministers’ oath is prescribed in Third Schedule.
Q86. Fourth Schedule of the Constitution deals with:
✅ A) Allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha
B) Forms of oath and affirmation
C) Salaries of constitutional authorities
D) Panchayati Raj powers
Explanation: Fourth Schedule allocates Rajya Sabha seats to States and UTs.
Q87. How many seats are allocated in Rajya Sabha today?
✅ A) 245
B) 250
C) 275
D) 300
Explanation: Rajya Sabha has 245 seats (233 elected + 12 nominated).
Q88. How many members are nominated by the President to Rajya Sabha?
✅ A) 12
B) 10
C) 15
D) 20
Explanation: President nominates 12 members with expertise in arts, science, literature, social service.
Q89. Which State has the highest number of Rajya Sabha seats?
✅ A) Uttar Pradesh
B) Maharashtra
C) Bihar
D) West Bengal
Explanation: Uttar Pradesh has the highest allocation (31 seats).
Q90. Which State has the second highest number of Rajya Sabha seats?
✅ A) Maharashtra
B) Bihar
C) West Bengal
D) Tamil Nadu
Explanation: Maharashtra has 19 seats.
Q91. Which Union Territory has representation in Rajya Sabha?
✅ A) Delhi and Puducherry
B) Chandigarh
C) Lakshadweep
D) Andaman & Nicobar
Explanation: Delhi and Puducherry have Rajya Sabha representation.
Q92. Which Union Territories have no representation in Rajya Sabha?
✅ A) Chandigarh, Lakshadweep, Andaman & Nicobar, Dadra & Nagar Haveli, Ladakh
B) Delhi
C) Puducherry
D) None of the above
Explanation: These UTs have no Rajya Sabha representation.
Q93. How many Rajya Sabha seats are allocated to Bihar?
✅ A) 16
B) 18
C) 20
D) 22
Explanation: Bihar has 16 seats in Rajya Sabha.
Q94. How many Rajya Sabha seats are allocated to West Bengal?
✅ A) 16
B) 18
C) 20
D) 22
Explanation: West Bengal has 16 seats.
Q95. How many Rajya Sabha seats are allocated to Tamil Nadu?
✅ A) 18
B) 16
C) 20
D) 22
Explanation: Tamil Nadu has 18 seats.
Q96. How many Rajya Sabha seats are allocated to Karnataka?
✅ A) 12
B) 16
C) 18
D) 20
Explanation: Karnataka has 12 seats.
Q97. How many Rajya Sabha seats are allocated to Andhra Pradesh?
✅ A) 11
B) 12
C) 13
D) 14
Explanation: Andhra Pradesh has 11 seats.
Q98. How many Rajya Sabha seats are allocated to Kerala?
✅ A) 9
B) 10
C) 11
D) 12
Explanation: Kerala has 9 seats.
Q99. How many Rajya Sabha seats are allocated to Delhi?
✅ A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
Explanation: Delhi has 3 seats in Rajya Sabha.
Q100. How many Rajya Sabha seats are allocated to Puducherry?
✅ A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Explanation: Puducherry has 1 seat in Rajya Sabha.
Q101. Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with:
✅ A) Administration of Scheduled Areas and Tribes
B) Allocation of Rajya Sabha seats
C) Forms of oath and affirmation
D) Panchayati Raj powers
Explanation: Fifth Schedule provides for administration of Scheduled Areas and Tribes.
Q102. Which Article empowers the President to declare Scheduled Areas?
✅ A) Article 244(1)
B) Article 244(2)
C) Article 342
D) Article 370
Explanation: Article 244(1) relates to Scheduled Areas under Fifth Schedule.
Q103. Who has the power to modify Scheduled Areas?
✅ A) President of India
B) Parliament
C) Governor
D) Supreme Court
Explanation: President can declare, alter, or modify Scheduled Areas.
Q104. Which body advises on administration of Scheduled Areas?
✅ A) Tribes Advisory Council
B) Election Commission
C) UPSC
D) Finance Commission
Explanation: Tribes Advisory Council advises on Scheduled Areas.
Q105. Tribes Advisory Council is constituted in:
✅ A) States having Scheduled Areas
B) All States
C) Union Territories only
D) None of the above
Explanation: TAC is formed in States with Scheduled Areas.
Q106. Governor submits annual report on Scheduled Areas to:
✅ A) President of India
B) Prime Minister
C) Parliament
D) Supreme Court
Explanation: Governor reports to President on administration of Scheduled Areas.
Q107. Sixth Schedule of the Constitution deals with:
✅ A) Tribal Areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram
B) Scheduled Areas in all States
C) Panchayati Raj powers
D) Municipalities powers
Explanation: Sixth Schedule provides for Autonomous District Councils in these States.
Q108. Sixth Schedule is applicable to:
✅ A) Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram
B) Nagaland, Manipur, Arunachal Pradesh
C) All North‑Eastern States
D) None of the above
Explanation: Sixth Schedule applies to Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram.
Q109. Autonomous District Councils are created under:
✅ A) Sixth Schedule
B) Fifth Schedule
C) Seventh Schedule
D) Ninth Schedule
Explanation: ADCs are provided under Sixth Schedule.
Q110. How many Autonomous District Councils exist under Sixth Schedule?
✅ A) 10
B) 8
C) 12
D) 14
Explanation: Currently, 10 ADCs exist under Sixth Schedule.
Q111. Which Article relates to Sixth Schedule?
✅ A) Article 244(2)
B) Article 244(1)
C) Article 342
D) Article 370
Explanation: Article 244(2) relates to Sixth Schedule.
Q112. Which State has Bodoland Territorial Council?
✅ A) Assam
B) Meghalaya
C) Tripura
D) Mizoram
Explanation: Bodoland Territorial Council is in Assam.
Q113. Which State has Khasi Hills Autonomous District Council?
✅ A) Meghalaya
B) Assam
C) Tripura
D) Mizoram
Explanation: Khasi Hills ADC is in Meghalaya.
Q114. Which State has Garo Hills Autonomous District Council?
✅ A) Meghalaya
B) Assam
C) Tripura
D) Mizoram
Explanation: Garo Hills ADC is in Meghalaya.
Q115. Which State has Jaintia Hills Autonomous District Council?
✅ A) Meghalaya
B) Assam
C) Tripura
D) Mizoram
Explanation: Jaintia Hills ADC is in Meghalaya.
Q116. Which State has Tripura Tribal Areas Autonomous District Council?
✅ A) Tripura
B) Assam
C) Meghalaya
D) Mizoram
Explanation: Tripura Tribal ADC is in Tripura.
Q117. Which State has Chakma Autonomous District Council?
✅ A) Mizoram
B) Assam
C) Tripura
D) Meghalaya
Explanation: Chakma ADC is in Mizoram.
Q118. Which State has Mara Autonomous District Council?
✅ A) Mizoram
B) Assam
C) Tripura
D) Meghalaya
Explanation: Mara ADC is in Mizoram.
Q119. Which State has Lai Autonomous District Council?
✅ A) Mizoram
B) Assam
C) Tripura
D) Meghalaya
Explanation: Lai ADC is in Mizoram.
Q120. Which Schedule provides for Governor’s discretionary powers in tribal areas?
✅ A) Sixth Schedule
B) Fifth Schedule
C) Seventh Schedule
D) Ninth Schedule
Explanation: Governor has discretionary powers under Sixth Schedule.
Q121. Which Schedule provides for President’s powers in Scheduled Areas?
✅ A) Fifth Schedule
B) Sixth Schedule
C) Seventh Schedule
D) Ninth Schedule
Explanation: President has powers under Fifth Schedule.
Q122. Which Schedule provides for establishment of District Councils?
✅ A) Sixth Schedule
B) Fifth Schedule
C) Seventh Schedule
D) Ninth Schedule
Explanation: Sixth Schedule provides for District Councils.
Q123. Which Schedule provides for Regional Councils?
✅ A) Sixth Schedule
B) Fifth Schedule
C) Seventh Schedule
D) Ninth Schedule
Explanation: Sixth Schedule provides for Regional Councils.
Q124. Which Schedule provides for legislative, executive, and judicial powers to District Councils?
✅ A) Sixth Schedule
B) Fifth Schedule
C) Seventh Schedule
D) Ninth Schedule
Explanation: Sixth Schedule grants legislative, executive, and judicial powers to ADCs.
Q125. Which Schedule is considered a “mini‑constitution” for tribal areas?
✅ A) Sixth Schedule
B) Fifth Schedule
C) Seventh Schedule
D) Ninth Schedule
Explanation: Sixth Schedule is often called a mini‑constitution for tribal areas.
Q126. Seventh Schedule of the Constitution deals with:
✅ A) Distribution of legislative powers between Union and States
B) Salaries of constitutional authorities
C) Forms of oath and affirmation
D) Panchayati Raj powers
Explanation: Seventh Schedule contains Union, State, and Concurrent Lists.
Q127. How many subjects are in the Union List today?
✅ A) 100
B) 97
C) 99
D) 102
Explanation: Union List currently has 100 subjects.
Q128. How many subjects are in the State List today?
✅ A) 61
B) 66
C) 62
D) 64
Explanation: State List currently has 61 subjects.
Q129. How many subjects are in the Concurrent List today?
✅ A) 52
B) 47
C) 50
D) 54
Explanation: Concurrent List currently has 52 subjects.
Q130. Originally, how many subjects were in the Union List?
✅ A) 97
B) 100
C) 99
D) 102
Explanation: Originally, Union List had 97 subjects.
Q131. Originally, how many subjects were in the State List?
✅ A) 66
B) 61
C) 62
D) 64
Explanation: Originally, State List had 66 subjects.
Q132. Originally, how many subjects were in the Concurrent List?
✅ A) 47
B) 52
C) 50
D) 54
Explanation: Originally, Concurrent List had 47 subjects.
Q133. Which Amendment transferred subjects from State List to Concurrent List?
✅ A) 42nd Amendment (1976)
B) 44th Amendment
C) 73rd Amendment
D) 74th Amendment
Explanation: 42nd Amendment shifted subjects like education to Concurrent List.
Q134. Which subject was transferred from State List to Concurrent List by 42nd Amendment?
✅ A) Education
B) Agriculture
C) Police
D) Public order
Explanation: Education was shifted to Concurrent List.
Q135. Which subject was transferred from State List to Concurrent List by 42nd Amendment?
✅ A) Forests
B) Agriculture
C) Police
D) Public order
Explanation: Forests were shifted to Concurrent List.
Q136. Which subject was transferred from State List to Concurrent List by 42nd Amendment?
✅ A) Weights and measures
B) Agriculture
C) Police
D) Public order
Explanation: Weights and measures were shifted to Concurrent List.
Q137. Which subject was transferred from State List to Concurrent List by 42nd Amendment?
✅ A) Protection of wild animals and birds
B) Agriculture
C) Police
D) Public order
Explanation: Wildlife protection was shifted to Concurrent List.
Q138. Which subject was transferred from State List to Concurrent List by 42nd Amendment?
✅ A) Administration of justice
B) Agriculture
C) Police
D) Public order
Explanation: Administration of justice was shifted to Concurrent List.
Q139. Which subject was transferred from State List to Concurrent List by 42nd Amendment?
✅ A) Population control and family planning
B) Agriculture
C) Police
D) Public order
Explanation: Family planning was shifted to Concurrent List.
Q140. Which subject was transferred from State List to Concurrent List by 42nd Amendment?
✅ A) Electricity
B) Agriculture
C) Police
D) Public order
Explanation: Electricity was shifted to Concurrent List.
Q141. Which subject was transferred from State List to Concurrent List by 42nd Amendment?
✅ A) Labour welfare
B) Agriculture
C) Police
D) Public order
Explanation: Labour welfare was shifted to Concurrent List.
Q142. Which subject was transferred from State List to Concurrent List by 42nd Amendment?
✅ A) Economic and social planning
B) Agriculture
C) Police
D) Public order
Explanation: Economic and social planning was shifted to Concurrent List.
Q143. Which subject was transferred from State List to Concurrent List by 42nd Amendment?
✅ A) Education in technical and medical institutions
B) Agriculture
C) Police
D) Public order
Explanation: Technical and medical education was shifted to Concurrent List.
Q144. Which subject was transferred from State List to Concurrent List by 42nd Amendment?
✅ A) Prevention of cruelty to animals
B) Agriculture
C) Police
D) Public order
Explanation: Prevention of cruelty to animals was shifted to Concurrent List.
Q145. Which subject was transferred from State List to Concurrent List by 42nd Amendment?
✅ A) Weights and measures (standards)
B) Agriculture
C) Police
D) Public order
Explanation: Standards of weights and measures were shifted to Concurrent List.
Q146. Which subject was transferred from State List to Concurrent List by 42nd Amendment?
✅ A) Factories
B) Agriculture
C) Police
D) Public order
Explanation: Factories regulation was shifted to Concurrent List.
Q147. Which subject was transferred from State List to Concurrent List by 42nd Amendment?
✅ A) Industrial disputes
B) Agriculture
C) Police
D) Public order
Explanation: Industrial disputes were shifted to Concurrent List.
Q148. Which subject was transferred from State List to Concurrent List by 42nd Amendment?
✅ A) Education in universities
B) Agriculture
C) Police
D) Public order
Explanation: University education was shifted to Concurrent List.
Q149. Which subject was transferred from State List to Concurrent List by 42nd Amendment?
✅ A) Electricity generation and distribution
B) Agriculture
C) Police
D) Public order
Explanation: Electricity generation and distribution was shifted to Concurrent List.
Q150. Which subject was transferred from State List to Concurrent List by 42nd Amendment?
✅ A) Archaeological sites and monuments
B) Agriculture
C) Police
D) Public order
Explanation: Archaeological sites and monuments were shifted to Concurrent List.
Q151. Eighth Schedule of the Constitution deals with:
✅ A) Official languages
B) Distribution of legislative powers
C) Salaries of constitutional authorities
D) Panchayati Raj powers
Explanation: Eighth Schedule lists the official languages recognized by the Constitution.
Q152. How many languages were originally listed in the Eighth Schedule?
✅ A) 14
B) 16
C) 18
D) 22
Explanation: Originally, 14 languages were listed in 1950.
Q153. How many languages are listed in the Eighth Schedule today?
✅ A) 22
B) 20
C) 18
D) 24
Explanation: Currently, 22 languages are listed.
Q154. Which Amendment added Sindhi to the Eighth Schedule?
✅ A) 21st Amendment (1967)
B) 71st Amendment
C) 92nd Amendment
D) 100th Amendment
Explanation: Sindhi was added by the 21st Amendment.
Q155. Which Amendment added Konkani, Manipuri, Nepali?
✅ A) 71st Amendment (1992)
B) 92nd Amendment
C) 21st Amendment
D) 100th Amendment
Explanation: Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali were added by the 71st Amendment.
Q156. Which Amendment added Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, Santhali?
✅ A) 92nd Amendment (2003)
B) 71st Amendment
C) 21st Amendment
D) 100th Amendment
Explanation: Four languages were added by the 92nd Amendment.
Q157. Which language was added by the 100th Amendment (2014)?
✅ A) Bodo
B) Dogri
C) Maithili
D) None
Explanation: No language was added by the 100th Amendment; it dealt with boundary changes.
Q158. Which Article relates to Eighth Schedule?
✅ A) Article 344 & 351
B) Article 244
C) Article 370
D) Article 342
Explanation: Articles 344 and 351 relate to Eighth Schedule languages.
Q159. Which language is recognized as the classical language of India?
✅ A) Sanskrit
B) Hindi
C) Tamil
D) Both A & C
Explanation: Sanskrit and Tamil are recognized as classical languages.
Q160. Which language was the first to be declared classical?
✅ A) Tamil
B) Sanskrit
C) Kannada
D) Telugu
Explanation: Tamil was declared classical in 2004.
Q161. Which language was declared classical in 2005?
✅ A) Sanskrit
B) Kannada
C) Telugu
D) Malayalam
Explanation: Sanskrit was declared classical in 2005.
Q162. Which language was declared classical in 2008?
✅ A) Kannada and Telugu
B) Tamil
C) Malayalam
D) Odia
Explanation: Kannada and Telugu were declared classical in 2008.
Q163. Which language was declared classical in 2013?
✅ A) Malayalam
B) Odia
C) Tamil
D) Sanskrit
Explanation: Malayalam was declared classical in 2013.
Q164. Which language was declared classical in 2014?
✅ A) Odia
B) Tamil
C) Sanskrit
D) Kannada
Explanation: Odia was declared classical in 2014.
Q165. Which language was declared classical in 2019?
✅ A) None
B) Hindi
C) Urdu
D) Punjabi
Explanation: No new language was declared classical in 2019.
Q166. Which body recommends recognition of classical languages?
✅ A) Ministry of Culture
B) UPSC
C) Election Commission
D) Finance Commission
Explanation: Ministry of Culture recommends classical language recognition.
Q167. Which language is spoken by the largest number of people in India?
✅ A) Hindi
B) Bengali
C) Telugu
D) Marathi
Explanation: Hindi is spoken by the largest number of people.
Q168. Which language is spoken by the second largest number of people in India?
✅ A) Bengali
B) Telugu
C) Marathi
D) Tamil
Explanation: Bengali is the second most spoken language.
Q169. Which language is spoken by the third largest number of people in India?
✅ A) Marathi
B) Telugu
C) Tamil
D) Urdu
Explanation: Marathi is the third most spoken language.
Q170. Which language is spoken by the fourth largest number of people in India?
✅ A) Telugu
B) Tamil
C) Urdu
D) Gujarati
Explanation: Telugu is the fourth most spoken language.
Q171. Which language is spoken by the fifth largest number of people in India?
✅ A) Tamil
B) Urdu
C) Gujarati
D) Kannada
Explanation: Tamil is the fifth most spoken language.
Q172. Which language is spoken by the sixth largest number of people in India?
✅ A) Urdu
B) Gujarati
C) Kannada
D) Malayalam
Explanation: Urdu is the sixth most spoken language.
Q173. Which language is spoken by the seventh largest number of people in India?
✅ A) Gujarati
B) Kannada
C) Malayalam
D) Punjabi
Explanation: Gujarati is the seventh most spoken language.
Q174. Which language is spoken by the eighth largest number of people in India?
✅ A) Kannada
B) Malayalam
C) Punjabi
D) Odia
Explanation: Kannada is the eighth most spoken language.
Q175. Which language is spoken by the ninth largest number of people in India?
✅ A) Malayalam
B) Punjabi
C) Odia
D) Assamese
Explanation: Malayalam is the ninth most spoken language.
Q176. Ninth Schedule of the Constitution was added by:
✅ A) First Amendment (1951)
B) 42nd Amendment
C) 44th Amendment
D) 52nd Amendment
Explanation: Ninth Schedule was added by the First Amendment to protect land reform laws.
Q177. Ninth Schedule was originally intended to protect:
✅ A) Land reform and agrarian laws
B) Salaries of constitutional authorities
C) Panchayati Raj powers
D) Official languages
Explanation: It was meant to shield land reform laws from judicial review.
Q178. Which Article is linked with Ninth Schedule?
✅ A) Article 31B
B) Article 31A
C) Article 370
D) Article 342
Explanation: Article 31B validates laws in Ninth Schedule.
Q179. How many laws were originally placed in Ninth Schedule?
✅ A) 13
B) 20
C) 25
D) 30
Explanation: 13 laws were initially placed in Ninth Schedule.
Q180. How many laws are currently included in Ninth Schedule?
✅ A) 280+
B) 200+
C) 150+
D) 100+
Explanation: Over 280 laws are now included.
Q181. Which landmark case declared Ninth Schedule laws subject to judicial review?
✅ A) I.R. Coelho vs State of Tamil Nadu (2007)
B) Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
C) Minerva Mills (1980)
D) Golaknath (1967)
Explanation: I.R. Coelho case made Ninth Schedule laws reviewable if they violate basic structure.
Q182. Which Amendment placed land reform laws in Ninth Schedule?
✅ A) First Amendment
B) 42nd Amendment
C) 44th Amendment
D) 73rd Amendment
Explanation: First Amendment placed land reform laws in Ninth Schedule.
Q183. Which Schedule contains the Anti‑Defection Law?
✅ A) Tenth Schedule
B) Ninth Schedule
C) Eleventh Schedule
D) Twelfth Schedule
Explanation: Tenth Schedule contains provisions on defection.
Q184. Tenth Schedule was added by which Amendment?
✅ A) 52nd Amendment (1985)
B) 42nd Amendment
C) 44th Amendment
D) 73rd Amendment
Explanation: Anti‑Defection Law was added by 52nd Amendment.
Q185. Tenth Schedule is linked with which Article?
✅ A) Article 102 & 191
B) Article 31B
C) Article 370
D) Article 342
Explanation: Articles 102 and 191 deal with disqualification on grounds of defection.
Q186. Who is the deciding authority in cases of defection in Parliament?
✅ A) Speaker of Lok Sabha / Chairman of Rajya Sabha
B) President of India
C) Supreme Court
D) Prime Minister
Explanation: Presiding officers decide defection cases.
Q187. Who is the deciding authority in cases of defection in State Legislatures?
✅ A) Speaker / Chairman of State Legislature
B) Governor
C) High Court
D) Chief Minister
Explanation: Presiding officers decide defection cases in States.
Q188. Which case upheld the constitutional validity of Tenth Schedule?
✅ A) Kihoto Hollohan vs Zachillhu (1992)
B) Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
C) Minerva Mills (1980)
D) Indira Gandhi vs Raj Narain (1975)
Explanation: Kihoto Hollohan case upheld Anti‑Defection Law.
Q189. Which Amendment strengthened Anti‑Defection Law by disallowing split?
✅ A) 91st Amendment (2003)
B) 42nd Amendment
C) 44th Amendment
D) 73rd Amendment
Explanation: 91st Amendment disallowed split and limited size of Council of Ministers.
Q190. What fraction of members is required for a merger under Tenth Schedule?
✅ A) Two‑thirds
B) One‑third
C) Half
D) Three‑fourths
Explanation: Two‑thirds of members are required for merger.
Q191. Which provision disqualifies independent members if they join a political party?
✅ A) Tenth Schedule
B) Ninth Schedule
C) Eleventh Schedule
D) Twelfth Schedule
Explanation: Independent members joining a party are disqualified under Tenth Schedule.
Q192. Which provision disqualifies nominated members if they join a political party after 6 months?
✅ A) Tenth Schedule
B) Ninth Schedule
C) Eleventh Schedule
D) Twelfth Schedule
Explanation: Nominated members face disqualification if they join a party after 6 months.
Q193. Which Amendment capped the size of Council of Ministers at 15% of House strength?
✅ A) 91st Amendment (2003)
B) 42nd Amendment
C) 44th Amendment
D) 73rd Amendment
Explanation: 91st Amendment capped Council of Ministers at 15%.
Q194. Which Schedule is called the “Defection Schedule”?
✅ A) Tenth Schedule
B) Ninth Schedule
C) Eleventh Schedule
D) Twelfth Schedule
Explanation: Tenth Schedule is popularly called the Defection Schedule.
Q195. Which Schedule is called the “Shield Schedule”?
✅ A) Ninth Schedule
B) Tenth Schedule
C) Eleventh Schedule
D) Twelfth Schedule
Explanation: Ninth Schedule is called Shield Schedule as it shields laws from judicial review.
Q196. Which Schedule was criticized for violating the basic structure doctrine?
✅ A) Ninth Schedule
B) Tenth Schedule
C) Eleventh Schedule
D) Twelfth Schedule
Explanation: Ninth Schedule laws were criticized for violating basic structure.
Q197. Which Schedule was upheld as necessary to curb political instability?
✅ A) Tenth Schedule
B) Ninth Schedule
C) Eleventh Schedule
D) Twelfth Schedule
Explanation: Tenth Schedule was upheld to prevent political instability.
Q198. Which Schedule is linked with agrarian reforms?
✅ A) Ninth Schedule
B) Tenth Schedule
C) Eleventh Schedule
D) Twelfth Schedule
Explanation: Ninth Schedule is linked with agrarian reforms.
Q199. Which Schedule is linked with party discipline?
✅ A) Tenth Schedule
B) Ninth Schedule
C) Eleventh Schedule
D) Twelfth Schedule
Explanation: Tenth Schedule enforces party discipline.
Q200. Which Schedule is linked with judicial review debates?
✅ A) Ninth Schedule
B) Tenth Schedule
C) Eleventh Schedule
D) Twelfth Schedule
Explanation: Ninth Schedule is central to debates on judicial review.
Q201. Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution deals with:
✅ A) Powers, authority, and responsibilities of Panchayati Raj Institutions
B) Municipalities powers
C) Salaries of constitutional authorities
D) Official languages
Explanation: Eleventh Schedule lists 29 subjects for Panchayati Raj.
Q202. Eleventh Schedule was added by which Amendment?
✅ A) 73rd Amendment (1992)
B) 74th Amendment
C) 42nd Amendment
D) 44th Amendment
Explanation: 73rd Amendment added Eleventh Schedule.
Q203. How many subjects are listed in Eleventh Schedule?
✅ A) 29
B) 18
C) 22
D) 25
Explanation: Eleventh Schedule contains 29 subjects.
Q204. Which Article relates to Eleventh Schedule?
✅ A) Article 243G
B) Article 243W
C) Article 244
D) Article 342
Explanation: Article 243G empowers Panchayats with Eleventh Schedule subjects.
Q205. Which subject is listed first in Eleventh Schedule?
✅ A) Agriculture
B) Education
C) Health
D) Rural housing
Explanation: Agriculture is the first subject.
Q206. Which subject in Eleventh Schedule relates to land improvement and soil conservation?
✅ A) Agriculture
B) Land reforms
C) Minor irrigation
D) Soil conservation
Explanation: Land improvement and soil conservation is a listed subject.
Q207. Which subject in Eleventh Schedule relates to minor irrigation, water management, and watershed development?
✅ A) Minor irrigation
B) Agriculture
C) Soil conservation
D) Rural housing
Explanation: Minor irrigation and water management is listed.
Q208. Which subject in Eleventh Schedule relates to animal husbandry, dairying, and poultry?
✅ A) Animal husbandry
B) Agriculture
C) Fisheries
D) Forestry
Explanation: Animal husbandry is listed.
Q209. Which subject in Eleventh Schedule relates to fisheries?
✅ A) Fisheries
B) Agriculture
C) Forestry
D) Rural housing
Explanation: Fisheries is listed.
Q210. Which subject in Eleventh Schedule relates to social forestry and farm forestry?
✅ A) Forestry
B) Agriculture
C) Fisheries
D) Soil conservation
Explanation: Social forestry and farm forestry are listed.
Q211. Which subject in Eleventh Schedule relates to minor forest produce?
✅ A) Minor forest produce
B) Agriculture
C) Fisheries
D) Forestry
Explanation: Minor forest produce is listed.
Q212. Which subject in Eleventh Schedule relates to small scale industries?
✅ A) Small scale industries
B) Agriculture
C) Forestry
D) Fisheries
Explanation: Small scale industries are listed.
Q213. Which subject in Eleventh Schedule relates to khadi, village, and cottage industries?
✅ A) Khadi and village industries
B) Agriculture
C) Forestry
D) Fisheries
Explanation: Khadi and cottage industries are listed.
Q214. Which subject in Eleventh Schedule relates to rural housing?
✅ A) Rural housing
B) Agriculture
C) Forestry
D) Fisheries
Explanation: Rural housing is listed.
Q215. Which subject in Eleventh Schedule relates to drinking water?
✅ A) Drinking water
B) Agriculture
C) Forestry
D) Fisheries
Explanation: Drinking water is listed.
Q216. Which subject in Eleventh Schedule relates to health and sanitation?
✅ A) Health and sanitation
B) Agriculture
C) Forestry
D) Fisheries
Explanation: Health and sanitation is listed.
Q217. Which subject in Eleventh Schedule relates to family welfare?
✅ A) Family welfare
B) Agriculture
C) Forestry
D) Fisheries
Explanation: Family welfare is listed.
Q218. Which subject in Eleventh Schedule relates to women and child development?
✅ A) Women and child development
B) Agriculture
C) Forestry
D) Fisheries
Explanation: Women and child development is listed.
Q219. Which subject in Eleventh Schedule relates to social welfare?
✅ A) Social welfare
B) Agriculture
C) Forestry
D) Fisheries
Explanation: Social welfare is listed.
Q220. Which subject in Eleventh Schedule relates to welfare of weaker sections?
✅ A) Welfare of weaker sections
B) Agriculture
C) Forestry
D) Fisheries
Explanation: Welfare of weaker sections is listed.
Q221. Which subject in Eleventh Schedule relates to public distribution system?
✅ A) Public distribution system
B) Agriculture
C) Forestry
D) Fisheries
Explanation: PDS is listed.
Q222. Which subject in Eleventh Schedule relates to maintenance of community assets?
✅ A) Community assets
B) Agriculture
C) Forestry
D) Fisheries
Explanation: Maintenance of community assets is listed.
Q223. Which subject in Eleventh Schedule relates to education including primary and secondary schools?
✅ A) Education
B) Agriculture
C) Forestry
D) Fisheries
Explanation: Education is listed.
Q224. Which subject in Eleventh Schedule relates to technical training and vocational education?
✅ A) Technical training
B) Agriculture
C) Forestry
D) Fisheries
Explanation: Technical training and vocational education is listed.
Q225. Which subject in Eleventh Schedule relates to adult and non‑formal education?
✅ A) Adult education
B) Agriculture
C) Forestry
D) Fisheries
Explanation: Adult and non‑formal education is listed.
Q226. Twelfth Schedule of the Constitution deals with:
✅ A) Powers, authority, and responsibilities of Municipalities
B) Panchayati Raj powers
C) Salaries of constitutional authorities
D) Official languages
Explanation: Twelfth Schedule lists 18 subjects for Municipalities.
Q227. Twelfth Schedule was added by which Amendment?
✅ A) 74th Amendment (1992)
B) 73rd Amendment
C) 42nd Amendment
D) 44th Amendment
Explanation: 74th Amendment added Twelfth Schedule.
Q228. How many subjects are listed in Twelfth Schedule?
✅ A) 18
B) 29
C) 22
D) 25
Explanation: Twelfth Schedule contains 18 subjects.
Q229. Which Article relates to Twelfth Schedule?
✅ A) Article 243W
B) Article 243G
C) Article 244
D) Article 342
Explanation: Article 243W empowers Municipalities with Twelfth Schedule subjects.
Q230. Which subject in Twelfth Schedule relates to urban planning including town planning?
✅ A) Urban planning
B) Agriculture
C) Forestry
D) Fisheries
Explanation: Urban planning is the first subject.
Q231. Which subject in Twelfth Schedule relates to regulation of land use and construction of buildings?
✅ A) Land use regulation
B) Agriculture
C) Forestry
D) Fisheries
Explanation: Regulation of land use and building construction is listed.
Q232. Which subject in Twelfth Schedule relates to planning for economic and social development?
✅ A) Economic and social development planning
B) Agriculture
C) Forestry
D) Fisheries
Explanation: Economic and social development planning is listed.
Q233. Which subject in Twelfth Schedule relates to roads and bridges?
✅ A) Roads and bridges
B) Agriculture
C) Forestry
D) Fisheries
Explanation: Roads and bridges are listed.
Q234. Which subject in Twelfth Schedule relates to water supply for domestic, industrial, and commercial purposes?
✅ A) Water supply
B) Agriculture
C) Forestry
D) Fisheries
Explanation: Water supply is listed.
Q235. Which subject in Twelfth Schedule relates to public health, sanitation, and solid waste management?
✅ A) Public health and sanitation
B) Agriculture
C) Forestry
D) Fisheries
Explanation: Public health and sanitation is listed.
Q236. Which subject in Twelfth Schedule relates to fire services?
✅ A) Fire services
B) Agriculture
C) Forestry
D) Fisheries
Explanation: Fire services are listed.
Q237. Which subject in Twelfth Schedule relates to urban forestry, protection of environment, and ecology?
✅ A) Urban forestry and environment
B) Agriculture
C) Forestry
D) Fisheries
Explanation: Urban forestry and environment protection is listed.
Q238. Which subject in Twelfth Schedule relates to safeguarding interests of weaker sections of society?
✅ A) Welfare of weaker sections
B) Agriculture
C) Forestry
D) Fisheries
Explanation: Welfare of weaker sections is listed.
Q239. Which subject in Twelfth Schedule relates to slum improvement and upgradation?
✅ A) Slum improvement
B) Agriculture
C) Forestry
D) Fisheries
Explanation: Slum improvement and upgradation is listed.
Q240. Which subject in Twelfth Schedule relates to urban poverty alleviation?
✅ A) Urban poverty alleviation
B) Agriculture
C) Forestry
D) Fisheries
Explanation: Urban poverty alleviation is listed.
Q241. Which subject in Twelfth Schedule relates to provision of urban amenities such as parks and gardens?
✅ A) Parks and gardens
B) Agriculture
C) Forestry
D) Fisheries
Explanation: Parks and gardens are listed.
Q242. Which subject in Twelfth Schedule relates to promotion of cultural, educational, and aesthetic aspects?
✅ A) Cultural promotion
B) Agriculture
C) Forestry
D) Fisheries
Explanation: Cultural, educational, and aesthetic promotion is listed.
Q243. Which subject in Twelfth Schedule relates to burials and burial grounds, cremations, cremation grounds, and electric crematoria?
✅ A) Burial and cremation grounds
B) Agriculture
C) Forestry
D) Fisheries
Explanation: Burial and cremation grounds are listed.
Q244. Which subject in Twelfth Schedule relates to cattle ponds, prevention of cruelty to animals?
✅ A) Cattle ponds and animal welfare
B) Agriculture
C) Forestry
D) Fisheries
Explanation: Cattle ponds and animal welfare is listed.
Q245. Which subject in Twelfth Schedule relates to vital statistics including registration of births and deaths?
✅ A) Vital statistics
B) Agriculture
C) Forestry
D) Fisheries
Explanation: Vital statistics are listed.
Q246. Which subject in Twelfth Schedule relates to public amenities including street lighting, parking lots, bus stops, and public conveniences?
✅ A) Public amenities
B) Agriculture
C) Forestry
D) Fisheries
Explanation: Public amenities are listed.
Q247. Which subject in Twelfth Schedule relates to regulation of slaughterhouses and tanneries?
✅ A) Slaughterhouses and tanneries
B) Agriculture
C) Forestry
D) Fisheries
Explanation: Slaughterhouses and tanneries regulation is listed.
Q248. Which subject in Twelfth Schedule relates to urban transport?
✅ A) Urban transport
B) Agriculture
C) Forestry
D) Fisheries
Explanation: Urban transport is listed.
Q249. Which subject in Twelfth Schedule relates to street lighting?
✅ A) Street lighting
B) Agriculture
C) Forestry
D) Fisheries
Explanation: Street lighting is listed under public amenities.
Q250. Which subject in Twelfth Schedule relates to parking lots and bus stops?
✅ A) Parking lots and bus stops
B) Agriculture
C) Forestry
D) Fisheries
Explanation: Parking lots and bus stops are listed under public amenities.
Q251. Which Part of the Constitution contains transitional provisions?
✅ A) Part XXI
B) Part XX
C) Part XIX
D) Part XVIII
Explanation: Part XXI contains temporary, transitional, and special provisions.
Q252. Which Article provides for citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution?
✅ A) Article 5
B) Article 6
C) Article 7
D) Article 8
Explanation: Article 5 deals with citizenship at commencement.
Q253. Which Article deals with rights of migrants from Pakistan?
✅ A) Article 6
B) Article 5
C) Article 7
D) Article 8
Explanation: Article 6 deals with migrants from Pakistan.
Q254. Which Article deals with rights of persons migrating to Pakistan?
✅ A) Article 7
B) Article 5
C) Article 6
D) Article 8
Explanation: Article 7 deals with persons migrating to Pakistan.
Q255. Which Article deals with citizenship of persons of Indian origin residing outside India?
✅ A) Article 8
B) Article 5
C) Article 6
D) Article 7
Explanation: Article 8 deals with persons of Indian origin abroad.
Q256. Which Article empowers Parliament to make laws regarding citizenship?
✅ A) Article 11
B) Article 10
C) Article 9
D) Article 12
Explanation: Article 11 empowers Parliament to regulate citizenship.
Q257. Which Article deals with citizenship rights of persons voluntarily acquiring foreign citizenship?
✅ A) Article 9
B) Article 5
C) Article 6
D) Article 7
Explanation: Article 9 deals with voluntary acquisition of foreign citizenship.
Q258. Which Part of the Constitution deals with emergency provisions?
✅ A) Part XVIII
B) Part XIX
C) Part XX
D) Part XXI
Explanation: Part XVIII deals with emergency provisions.
Q259. Which Article provides for National Emergency?
✅ A) Article 352
B) Article 356
C) Article 360
D) Article 368
Explanation: Article 352 provides for National Emergency.
Q260. Which Article provides for State Emergency (President’s Rule)?
✅ A) Article 356
B) Article 352
C) Article 360
D) Article 368
Explanation: Article 356 provides for State Emergency.
Q261. Which Article provides for Financial Emergency?
✅ A) Article 360
B) Article 352
C) Article 356
D) Article 368
Explanation: Article 360 provides for Financial Emergency.
Q262. Which Article provides for constitutional amendment procedure?
✅ A) Article 368
B) Article 352
C) Article 356
D) Article 360
Explanation: Article 368 provides for amendment procedure.
Q263. Which Part of the Constitution deals with amendment of the Constitution?
✅ A) Part XX
B) Part XXI
C) Part XIX
D) Part XVIII
Explanation: Part XX deals with amendment of the Constitution.
Q264. Which Article provides for special provisions relating to Jammu & Kashmir (before 2019)?
✅ A) Article 370
B) Article 371
C) Article 372
D) Article 373
Explanation: Article 370 provided special status to J&K.
Q265. Which Article provides for special provisions relating to certain States like Maharashtra, Gujarat, Nagaland, etc.?
✅ A) Article 371
B) Article 370
C) Article 372
D) Article 373
Explanation: Article 371 provides special provisions for certain States.
Q266. Which Article provides for continuation of existing laws and their adaptation?
✅ A) Article 372
B) Article 371
C) Article 373
D) Article 374
Explanation: Article 372 continues pre‑Constitution laws.
Q267. Which Article empowers the President to make orders for adaptation of laws?
✅ A) Article 372A
B) Article 371
C) Article 373
D) Article 374
Explanation: Article 372A empowers President to adapt laws.
Q268. Which Article empowers the President to suspend provisions during emergencies?
✅ A) Article 373
B) Article 371
C) Article 372
D) Article 374
Explanation: Article 373 empowers President during emergencies.
Q269. Which Article provides for continuance of judges and officers of Supreme Court and High Courts?
✅ A) Article 374
B) Article 372
C) Article 373
D) Article 375
Explanation: Article 374 provides for continuance of judges and officers.
Q270. Which Article provides for continuance of proceedings in Supreme Court and High Courts?
✅ A) Article 375
B) Article 374
C) Article 376
D) Article 377
Explanation: Article 375 provides for continuance of proceedings.
Q271. Which Article provides for continuance of officers serving in Union and States?
✅ A) Article 376
B) Article 374
C) Article 375
D) Article 377
Explanation: Article 376 provides for continuance of officers.
Q272. Which Article provides for provisions relating to Public Service Commissions?
✅ A) Article 377
B) Article 374
C) Article 375
D) Article 376
Explanation: Article 377 provides for PSC provisions.
Q273. Which Article provides for continuance of provisions relating to Auditor‑General of India?
✅ A) Article 378
B) Article 374
C) Article 375
D) Article 376
Explanation: Article 378 provides for continuance of CAG provisions.
Q274. Which Article provides for continuance of provisions relating to services of All India Services?
✅ A) Article 378A
B) Article 374
C) Article 375
D) Article 376
Explanation: Article 378A provides for continuance of All India Services.
Q275. Which Article provides for continuance of provisions relating to elections until Parliament makes law?
✅ A) Article 379
B) Article 374
C) Article 375
D) Article 376
Explanation: Article 379 provides for continuance of election provisions.
Q276. Which Amendment introduced GST impacting Seventh Schedule?
✅ A) 101st Amendment (2016)
B) 42nd Amendment
C) 44th Amendment
D) 73rd Amendment
Explanation: 101st Amendment introduced GST, altering Union and State Lists.
Q277. Which Amendment introduced EWS reservation impacting Schedules?
✅ A) 103rd Amendment (2019)
B) 92nd Amendment
C) 74th Amendment
D) 44th Amendment
Explanation: 103rd Amendment provided 10% reservation for EWS.
Q278. Which Amendment abolished Legislative Councils in some States?
✅ A) 7th Amendment
B) 42nd Amendment
C) 44th Amendment
D) 73rd Amendment
Explanation: 7th Amendment allowed abolition/creation of Legislative Councils.
Q279. Which Amendment merged Dadra & Nagar Haveli with Daman & Diu?
✅ A) 2020 Reorganisation Act
B) 101st Amendment
C) 92nd Amendment
D) 73rd Amendment
Explanation: In 2020, Dadra & Nagar Haveli merged with Daman & Diu.
Q280. Which Amendment reorganised Jammu & Kashmir into two UTs?
✅ A) J&K Reorganisation Act, 2019
B) 42nd Amendment
C) 44th Amendment
D) 73rd Amendment
Explanation: J&K was reorganised into J&K and Ladakh UTs in 2019.
Q281. Which case declared basic structure doctrine?
✅ A) Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
B) Minerva Mills (1980)
C) I.R. Coelho (2007)
D) Golaknath (1967)
Explanation: Kesavananda Bharati case laid down basic structure doctrine.
Q282. Which case declared Ninth Schedule laws subject to review?
✅ A) I.R. Coelho (2007)
B) Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
C) Minerva Mills (1980)
D) Golaknath (1967)
Explanation: I.R. Coelho case made Ninth Schedule laws reviewable.
Q283. Which case upheld Anti‑Defection Law?
✅ A) Kihoto Hollohan (1992)
B) Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
C) Minerva Mills (1980)
D) Indira Gandhi vs Raj Narain (1975)
Explanation: Kihoto Hollohan case upheld Tenth Schedule.
Q284. Which case struck down part of 42nd Amendment?
✅ A) Minerva Mills (1980)
B) Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
C) I.R. Coelho (2007)
D) Golaknath (1967)
Explanation: Minerva Mills case struck down parts of 42nd Amendment.
Q285. Which case limited Parliament’s power to amend Constitution?
✅ A) Golaknath (1967)
B) Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
C) Minerva Mills (1980)
D) I.R. Coelho (2007)
Explanation: Golaknath case restricted Parliament’s amendment powers.
Q286. Which case upheld 24th Amendment giving Parliament power to amend?
✅ A) Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
B) Golaknath (1967)
C) Minerva Mills (1980)
D) Indira Gandhi vs Raj Narain (1975)
Explanation: Kesavananda upheld 24th Amendment but introduced basic structure.
Q287. Which case declared judicial review part of basic structure?
✅ A) Indira Gandhi vs Raj Narain (1975)
B) Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
C) Minerva Mills (1980)
D) I.R. Coelho (2007)
Explanation: Indira Gandhi vs Raj Narain case declared judicial review part of basic structure.
Q288. Which case declared secularism part of basic structure?
✅ A) S.R. Bommai (1994)
B) Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
C) Minerva Mills (1980)
D) I.R. Coelho (2007)
Explanation: S.R. Bommai case declared secularism part of basic structure.
Q289. Which case declared democracy part of basic structure?
✅ A) Indira Gandhi vs Raj Narain (1975)
B) Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
C) Minerva Mills (1980)
D) S.R. Bommai (1994)
Explanation: Indira Gandhi vs Raj Narain case declared democracy part of basic structure.
Q290. Which case declared rule of law part of basic structure?
✅ A) Indira Gandhi vs Raj Narain (1975)
B) Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
C) Minerva Mills (1980)
D) I.R. Coelho (2007)
Explanation: Rule of law upheld as part of basic structure.
Q291. Which case declared judicial independence part of basic structure?
✅ A) S.P. Gupta vs Union of India (1981)
B) Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
C) Minerva Mills (1980)
D) I.R. Coelho (2007)
Explanation: Judicial independence upheld in S.P. Gupta case.
Q292. Which case declared free and fair elections part of basic structure?
✅ A) Indira Gandhi vs Raj Narain (1975)
B) Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
C) Minerva Mills (1980)
D) S.R. Bommai (1994)
Explanation: Free and fair elections upheld as part of basic structure.
Q293. Which case declared parliamentary system part of basic structure?
✅ A) Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
B) Indira Gandhi vs Raj Narain (1975)
C) Minerva Mills (1980)
D) S.R. Bommai (1994)
Explanation: Parliamentary system upheld in Kesavananda case.
Q294. Which case declared federalism part of basic structure?
✅ A) S.R. Bommai (1994)
B) Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
C) Minerva Mills (1980)
D) I.R. Coelho (2007)
Explanation: Federalism upheld in S.R. Bommai case.
Q295. Which case declared unity and integrity of nation part of basic structure?
✅ A) Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
B) Indira Gandhi vs Raj Narain (1975)
C) Minerva Mills (1980)
D) S.R. Bommai (1994)
Explanation: Unity and integrity upheld in Kesavananda case.
Q296. Which case declared judicial primacy in appointments part of basic structure?
✅ A) Second Judges Case (1993)
B) First Judges Case (1981)
C) Third Judges Case (1998)
D) I.R. Coelho (2007)
Explanation: Second Judges Case upheld judicial primacy in appointments.
Q297. Which case declared NJAC unconstitutional for violating basic structure?
✅ A) Supreme Court Advocates‑on‑Record Association vs Union of India (2015)
B) Second Judges Case (1993)
C) Third Judges Case (1998)
D) Minerva Mills (1980)
Explanation: NJAC struck down in 2015 for violating judicial independence.
Q298. Which case declared right to privacy part of fundamental rights?
✅ A) K.S. Puttaswamy vs Union of India (2017)
B) Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
C) Minerva Mills (1980)
D) I.R. Coelho (2007)
Explanation: Right to privacy upheld in Puttaswamy case.
Q299. Which case declared right to information part of fundamental rights?
✅ A) Raj Narain vs State of UP (1975)
B) Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
C) Minerva Mills (1980)
D) I.R. Coelho (2007)
Explanation: Raj Narain case upheld right to information.
Q300. Which case declared right to education part of fundamental rights?
✅ A) Unni Krishnan vs State of Andhra Pradesh (1993)
B) Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
C) Minerva Mills (1980)
D) I.R. Coelho (2007)
Explanation: Unni Krishnan case upheld right to education, later reinforced by 86th Amendment.
Q301. First Schedule is linked with which Articles?
✅ A) Articles 1 and 4
B) Articles 5 and 6
C) Articles 243 and 244
D) Article 368
Explanation: First Schedule (States & UTs) is linked with Articles 1 and 4.
Q302. Second Schedule is linked with which Articles?
✅ A) Articles 59, 65, 75, 97, 125, 148, 158, 164, 186, 221
B) Articles 1 and 4
C) Articles 243G and 243W
D) Article 370
Explanation: Second Schedule covers salaries/allowances of constitutional authorities.
Q303. Third Schedule is linked with which Articles?
✅ A) Articles 75, 84, 99, 124, 148, 164, 188, 219
B) Articles 1 and 4
C) Articles 243G and 243W
D) Article 370
Explanation: Third Schedule prescribes forms of oath and affirmation.
Q304. Fourth Schedule is linked with which Article?
✅ A) Article 4(1) and Article 80(2)
B) Article 243G
C) Article 243W
D) Article 368
Explanation: Fourth Schedule allocates Rajya Sabha seats.
Q305. Fifth Schedule is linked with which Article?
✅ A) Article 244(1)
B) Article 244(2)
C) Article 342
D) Article 370
Explanation: Fifth Schedule deals with Scheduled Areas and Tribes under Article 244(1).
Q306. Sixth Schedule is linked with which Article?
✅ A) Article 244(2) and Article 275(1)
B) Article 244(1)
C) Article 342
D) Article 370
Explanation: Sixth Schedule deals with tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram.
Q307. Seventh Schedule is linked with which Articles?
✅ A) Articles 246–254
B) Articles 243G and 243W
C) Articles 1 and 4
D) Article 368
Explanation: Seventh Schedule distributes legislative powers.
Q308. Eighth Schedule is linked with which Articles?
✅ A) Articles 344 and 351
B) Articles 243G and 243W
C) Articles 1 and 4
D) Article 368
Explanation: Eighth Schedule lists official languages.
Q309. Ninth Schedule is linked with which Article?
✅ A) Article 31B
B) Article 31A
C) Article 370
D) Article 342
Explanation: Ninth Schedule validates laws placed under it via Article 31B.
Q310. Tenth Schedule is linked with which Articles?
✅ A) Articles 102 and 191
B) Articles 243G and 243W
C) Articles 1 and 4
D) Article 368
Explanation: Tenth Schedule deals with disqualification on grounds of defection.
Q311. Eleventh Schedule is linked with which Article?
✅ A) Article 243G
B) Article 243W
C) Article 244
D) Article 342
Explanation: Eleventh Schedule empowers Panchayats.
Q312. Twelfth Schedule is linked with which Article?
✅ A) Article 243W
B) Article 243G
C) Article 244
D) Article 342
Explanation: Twelfth Schedule empowers Municipalities.
Q313. Which Article empowers Parliament to amend First Schedule?
✅ A) Article 4
B) Article 368
C) Article 243G
D) Article 243W
Explanation: Article 4 allows Parliament to amend First Schedule.
Q314. Which Article empowers Parliament to amend Fourth Schedule?
✅ A) Article 4
B) Article 368
C) Article 243G
D) Article 243W
Explanation: Article 4 also allows amendment of Fourth Schedule.
Q315. Which Article empowers Parliament to amend Second Schedule?
✅ A) Article 368
B) Article 4
C) Article 243G
D) Article 243W
Explanation: Salaries in Second Schedule can be amended by Parliament under Article 368.
Q316. Which Article empowers Parliament to amend Seventh Schedule?
✅ A) Article 368
B) Article 4
C) Article 243G
D) Article 243W
Explanation: Distribution of powers in Seventh Schedule can be amended under Article 368.
Q317. Which Article empowers Parliament to amend Eighth Schedule?
✅ A) Article 368
B) Article 4
C) Article 243G
D) Article 243W
Explanation: Languages in Eighth Schedule can be amended under Article 368.
Q318. Which Article empowers Parliament to amend Ninth Schedule?
✅ A) Article 368
B) Article 4
C) Article 243G
D) Article 243W
Explanation: Ninth Schedule can be amended under Article 368.
Q319. Which Article empowers Parliament to amend Tenth Schedule?
✅ A) Article 368
B) Article 4
C) Article 243G
D) Article 243W
Explanation: Anti‑Defection provisions can be amended under Article 368.
Q320. Which Article empowers Parliament to amend Eleventh Schedule?
✅ A) Article 368
B) Article 4
C) Article 243G
D) Article 243W
Explanation: Eleventh Schedule can be amended under Article 368.
Q321. Which Article empowers Parliament to amend Twelfth Schedule?
✅ A) Article 368
B) Article 4
C) Article 243G
D) Article 243W
Explanation: Twelfth Schedule can be amended under Article 368.
Q322. Which Article validates laws placed in Ninth Schedule?
✅ A) Article 31B
B) Article 31A
C) Article 370
D) Article 342
Explanation: Article 31B validates Ninth Schedule laws.
Q323. Which Article provides for President’s power in Fifth Schedule?
✅ A) Article 339(1)
B) Article 244(1)
C) Article 243G
D) Article 243W
Explanation: Article 339(1) empowers President regarding Scheduled Areas.
Q324. Which Article provides for Governor’s power in Sixth Schedule?
✅ A) Article 371B
B) Article 244(2)
C) Article 243G
D) Article 243W
Explanation: Governor has discretionary powers under Article 244(2).
Q325. Which Article provides for Finance Commission’s role in Scheduled Areas?
✅ A) Article 275(1)
B) Article 243G
C) Article 243W
D) Article 368
Explanation: Article 275(1) provides grants for Scheduled Areas and tribal welfare.
Q326. Which Amendment reorganised States on linguistic basis?
✅ A) 7th Amendment (1956)
B) 1st Amendment
C) 42nd Amendment
D) 44th Amendment
Explanation: The 7th Amendment reorganised States and altered First Schedule.
Q327. Which Amendment added Sindhi language to Eighth Schedule?
✅ A) 21st Amendment (1967)
B) 71st Amendment
C) 92nd Amendment
D) 100th Amendment
Explanation: Sindhi was added by the 21st Amendment.
Q328. Which Amendment added Konkani, Manipuri, Nepali to Eighth Schedule?
✅ A) 71st Amendment (1992)
B) 21st Amendment
C) 92nd Amendment
D) 100th Amendment
Explanation: 71st Amendment expanded Eighth Schedule.
Q329. Which Amendment added Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, Santhali to Eighth Schedule?
✅ A) 92nd Amendment (2003)
B) 71st Amendment
C) 21st Amendment
D) 100th Amendment
Explanation: 92nd Amendment added four languages.
Q330. Which Amendment introduced Panchayati Raj and Eleventh Schedule?
✅ A) 73rd Amendment (1992)
B) 74th Amendment
C) 42nd Amendment
D) 44th Amendment
Explanation: 73rd Amendment added Eleventh Schedule.
Q331. Which Amendment introduced Municipalities and Twelfth Schedule?
✅ A) 74th Amendment (1992)
B) 73rd Amendment
C) 42nd Amendment
D) 44th Amendment
Explanation: 74th Amendment added Twelfth Schedule.
Q332. Which Amendment introduced Anti‑Defection Law and Tenth Schedule?
✅ A) 52nd Amendment (1985)
B) 42nd Amendment
C) 44th Amendment
D) 73rd Amendment
Explanation: 52nd Amendment added Tenth Schedule.
Q333. Which Amendment strengthened Anti‑Defection Law by disallowing splits?
✅ A) 91st Amendment (2003)
B) 52nd Amendment
C) 42nd Amendment
D) 44th Amendment
Explanation: 91st Amendment strengthened Tenth Schedule.
Q334. Which Amendment introduced GST impacting Seventh Schedule?
✅ A) 101st Amendment (2016)
B) 92nd Amendment
C) 73rd Amendment
D) 74th Amendment
Explanation: 101st Amendment altered Union and State Lists.
Q335. Which Amendment introduced EWS reservation impacting Schedules?
✅ A) 103rd Amendment (2019)
B) 92nd Amendment
C) 74th Amendment
D) 44th Amendment
Explanation: 103rd Amendment provided 10% reservation for EWS.
Q336. Which Amendment reorganised Jammu & Kashmir into two Union Territories?
✅ A) J&K Reorganisation Act, 2019
B) 42nd Amendment
C) 44th Amendment
D) 73rd Amendment
Explanation: J&K split into J&K and Ladakh UTs.
Q337. Which Amendment merged Dadra & Nagar Haveli with Daman & Diu?
✅ A) 2020 Reorganisation Act
B) 101st Amendment
C) 92nd Amendment
D) 73rd Amendment
Explanation: Dadra & Nagar Haveli merged with Daman & Diu in 2020.
Q338. Which Amendment abolished Anglo‑Indian reservation in legislatures?
✅ A) 104th Amendment (2020)
B) 103rd Amendment
C) 92nd Amendment
D) 74th Amendment
Explanation: 104th Amendment removed Anglo‑Indian reservation.
Q339. Which Amendment restored States’ power to identify OBCs?
✅ A) 105th Amendment (2021)
B) 104th Amendment
C) 103rd Amendment
D) 92nd Amendment
Explanation: 105th Amendment restored States’ OBC identification powers.
Q340. Which Amendment added Sikkim as a State in First Schedule?
✅ A) 36th Amendment (1975)
B) 7th Amendment
C) 42nd Amendment
D) 44th Amendment
Explanation: 36th Amendment made Sikkim a State.
Q341. Which Amendment created Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Goa as States?
✅ A) 53rd, 55th, 56th Amendments (1987)
B) 36th Amendment
C) 42nd Amendment
D) 44th Amendment
Explanation: These Amendments created new States in 1987.
Q342. Which Amendment created Nagaland as a State?
✅ A) 13th Amendment (1962)
B) 7th Amendment
C) 36th Amendment
D) 42nd Amendment
Explanation: Nagaland was created by 13th Amendment.
Q343. Which Amendment created Haryana as a State?
✅ A) Punjab Reorganisation Act, 1966
B) 7th Amendment
C) 36th Amendment
D) 42nd Amendment
Explanation: Haryana was created by Punjab Reorganisation Act.
Q344. Which Amendment created Jharkhand as a State?
✅ A) Bihar Reorganisation Act, 2000
B) 7th Amendment
C) 36th Amendment
D) 42nd Amendment
Explanation: Jharkhand created in 2000.
Q345. Which Amendment created Chhattisgarh as a State?
✅ A) Madhya Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2000
B) Bihar Reorganisation Act
C) Punjab Reorganisation Act
D) 36th Amendment
Explanation: Chhattisgarh created in 2000.
Q346. Which Amendment created Uttarakhand as a State?
✅ A) Uttar Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2000
B) Bihar Reorganisation Act
C) Punjab Reorganisation Act
D) 36th Amendment
Explanation: Uttarakhand created in 2000.
Q347. Which Amendment created Telangana as a State?
✅ A) Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014
B) Bihar Reorganisation Act
C) Punjab Reorganisation Act
D) 36th Amendment
Explanation: Telangana created in 2014.
Q348. Which Amendment reorganised Bombay into Maharashtra and Gujarat?
✅ A) Bombay Reorganisation Act, 1960
B) 7th Amendment
C) 36th Amendment
D) 42nd Amendment
Explanation: Bombay split into Maharashtra and Gujarat in 1960.
Q349. Which Amendment reorganised Assam to create Meghalaya?
✅ A) North‑Eastern Areas Reorganisation Act, 1971
B) 7th Amendment
C) 36th Amendment
D) 42nd Amendment
Explanation: Meghalaya created in 1971.
Q350. Which Amendment reorganised Tripura and Manipur into States?
✅ A) North‑Eastern Areas Reorganisation Act, 1971
B) 7th Amendment
C) 36th Amendment
D) 42nd Amendment
Explanation: Tripura and Manipur became States in 1971.
Q351. Which case interpreted territorial cession under First Schedule?
✅ A) Berubari Union case (1960)
B) Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
C) Minerva Mills (1980)
D) I.R. Coelho (2007)
Explanation: Berubari Union case clarified procedure for cession of territory.
Q352. Which case upheld Centre’s supremacy in Union List subjects?
✅ A) State of West Bengal vs Union of India (1963)
B) Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
C) Minerva Mills (1980)
D) Golaknath (1967)
Explanation: This case upheld Centre’s supremacy in Union List matters.
Q353. Which case upheld reservation policies under Ninth Schedule?
✅ A) Indra Sawhney (1992)
B) Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
C) Minerva Mills (1980)
D) I.R. Coelho (2007)
Explanation: Indra Sawhney case upheld Mandal Commission recommendations.
Q354. Which case clarified Governor’s discretionary powers in Sixth Schedule?
✅ A) T.N. Tiwari vs State of Assam
B) Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
C) Minerva Mills (1980)
D) Golaknath (1967)
Explanation: Case law clarified Governor’s role in tribal administration.
Q355. Which case upheld validity of land reform laws in Ninth Schedule?
✅ A) Kameshwar Singh vs State of Bihar
B) Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
C) Minerva Mills (1980)
D) Golaknath (1967)
Explanation: Land reform laws were upheld under Ninth Schedule.
Q356. Which case declared judicial review cannot be excluded by Ninth Schedule?
✅ A) I.R. Coelho (2007)
B) Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
C) Minerva Mills (1980)
D) Golaknath (1967)
Explanation: Ninth Schedule laws violating basic structure are reviewable.
Q357. Which case upheld disqualification of defecting legislators under Tenth Schedule?
✅ A) Kihoto Hollohan (1992)
B) Indra Sawhney (1992)
C) Minerva Mills (1980)
D) Golaknath (1967)
Explanation: Kihoto Hollohan upheld Anti‑Defection Law.
Q358. Which case declared secularism part of basic structure impacting Schedules?
✅ A) S.R. Bommai (1994)
B) Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
C) Minerva Mills (1980)
D) I.R. Coelho (2007)
Explanation: S.R. Bommai case emphasized Centre‑State relations and secularism.
Q359. Which case clarified scope of Article 371 special provisions?
✅ A) R.C. Poudyal vs Union of India (1993)
B) Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
C) Minerva Mills (1980)
D) Golaknath (1967)
Explanation: R.C. Poudyal case upheld special provisions for Sikkim.
Q360. Which case upheld constitutional validity of 73rd Amendment?
✅ A) K. Krishna Murthy vs Union of India (2010)
B) Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
C) Minerva Mills (1980)
D) Golaknath (1967)
Explanation: Case upheld Panchayati Raj provisions under Eleventh Schedule.
Q361. Which case upheld constitutional validity of 74th Amendment?
✅ A) Union of India vs R.C. Jain (1981)
B) Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
C) Minerva Mills (1980)
D) Golaknath (1967)
Explanation: R.C. Jain case clarified definition of Municipalities.
Q362. Which case upheld Centre’s power to reorganise States under First Schedule?
✅ A) State of Rajasthan vs Union of India (1977)
B) Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
C) Minerva Mills (1980)
D) Golaknath (1967)
Explanation: Case upheld Centre’s power to reorganise States.
Q363. Which case declared judicial independence part of basic structure?
✅ A) S.P. Gupta vs Union of India (1981)
B) Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
C) Minerva Mills (1980)
D) I.R. Coelho (2007)
Explanation: Judicial independence upheld in S.P. Gupta case.
Q364. Which case declared right to education part of fundamental rights?
✅ A) Unni Krishnan vs State of Andhra Pradesh (1993)
B) Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
C) Minerva Mills (1980)
D) I.R. Coelho (2007)
Explanation: Unni Krishnan case upheld right to education.
Q365. Which case declared right to privacy part of fundamental rights?
✅ A) K.S. Puttaswamy vs Union of India (2017)
B) Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
C) Minerva Mills (1980)
D) I.R. Coelho (2007)
Explanation: Puttaswamy case upheld right to privacy.
Q366. Which case declared right to information part of fundamental rights?
✅ A) Raj Narain vs State of UP (1975)
B) Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
C) Minerva Mills (1980)
D) I.R. Coelho (2007)
Explanation: Raj Narain case upheld right to information.
Q367. Which case declared NJAC unconstitutional for violating judicial independence?
✅ A) Supreme Court Advocates‑on‑Record Association vs Union of India (2015)
B) Second Judges Case (1993)
C) Third Judges Case (1998)
D) Minerva Mills (1980)
Explanation: NJAC struck down in 2015.
Q368. Which case declared Centre’s power to dismiss State governments under Article 356 reviewable?
✅ A) S.R. Bommai (1994)
B) Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
C) Minerva Mills (1980)
D) Golaknath (1967)
Explanation: S.R. Bommai case made Article 356 subject to judicial review.
Q369. Which case declared Parliament cannot amend Constitution to destroy basic structure?
✅ A) Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
B) Minerva Mills (1980)
C) I.R. Coelho (2007)
D) Golaknath (1967)
Explanation: Kesavananda Bharati case introduced basic structure doctrine.
Q370. Which case declared limited amending power of Parliament?
✅ A) Minerva Mills (1980)
B) Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
C) I.R. Coelho (2007)
D) Golaknath (1967)
Explanation: Minerva Mills case limited Parliament’s amending power.
Q371. Which case declared Centre’s power to reorganise territories under Article 3 valid?
✅ A) Babulal Parate vs State of Bombay (1960)
B) Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
C) Minerva Mills (1980)
D) Golaknath (1967)
Explanation: Case upheld Centre’s power under Article 3.
Q372. Which case declared reservation in promotions unconstitutional initially?
✅ A) Indra Sawhney (1992)
B) Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
C) Minerva Mills (1980)
D) I.R. Coelho (2007)
Explanation: Indra Sawhney case disallowed reservation in promotions.
Q373. Which case later upheld reservation in promotions with conditions?
✅ A) M. Nagaraj vs Union of India (2006)
B) Indra Sawhney (1992)
C) Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
D) Minerva Mills (1980)
Explanation: M. Nagaraj case upheld reservation in promotions with conditions.
Q374. Which case declared Parliament’s constituent power distinct from legislative power?
✅ A) Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
B) Minerva Mills (1980)
C) I.R. Coelho (2007)
D) Golaknath (1967)
Explanation: Kesavananda Bharati distinguished constituent vs legislative power.
Q375. Which case declared Centre’s power to amend Schedules subject to basic structure?
✅ A) I.R. Coelho (2007)
B) Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
C) Minerva Mills (1980)
D) Golaknath (1967)
Explanation: I.R. Coelho case declared even Schedule amendments subject to basic structure.
Q376. Which country’s Constitution has no “Schedules” but relies on Amendments?
✅ A) USA
B) UK
C) France
D) Canada
Explanation: USA Constitution has Articles and Amendments, no Schedules.
Q377. Which country’s Constitution is unwritten and based on conventions?
✅ A) UK
B) USA
C) France
D) Canada
Explanation: UK Constitution is unwritten, based on statutes and conventions.
Q378. Which country’s Constitution is the lengthiest in the world?
✅ A) India
B) USA
C) France
D) Canada
Explanation: Indian Constitution is the lengthiest with Schedules and detailed provisions.
Q379. Which country’s Constitution inspired India’s Concurrent List?
✅ A) Australia
B) USA
C) UK
D) Canada
Explanation: India borrowed Concurrent List idea from Australia.
Q380. Which country’s Constitution inspired India’s Federal structure?
✅ A) Canada
B) USA
C) UK
D) France
Explanation: Federal structure borrowed from Canada.
Q381. Which country’s Constitution inspired India’s Fundamental Rights?
✅ A) USA
B) UK
C) France
D) Canada
Explanation: Fundamental Rights borrowed from USA.
Q382. Which country’s Constitution inspired India’s Parliamentary system?
✅ A) UK
B) USA
C) France
D) Canada
Explanation: Parliamentary system borrowed from UK.
Q383. Which country’s Constitution inspired India’s Directive Principles of State Policy?
✅ A) Ireland
B) USA
C) UK
D) France
Explanation: DPSPs borrowed from Ireland.
Q384. Which country’s Constitution inspired India’s Emergency provisions?
✅ A) Germany (Weimar Constitution)
B) USA
C) UK
D) France
Explanation: Emergency provisions borrowed from Weimar Constitution.
Q385. Which country’s Constitution inspired India’s amendment procedure?
✅ A) South Africa
B) USA
C) UK
D) Canada
Explanation: Amendment procedure borrowed from South Africa.
Q386. Which country’s Constitution inspired India’s independence of judiciary?
✅ A) USA
B) UK
C) France
D) Canada
Explanation: Judicial independence borrowed from USA.
Q387. Which country’s Constitution inspired India’s bicameral legislature?
✅ A) UK
B) USA
C) France
D) Canada
Explanation: Bicameral legislature borrowed from UK.
Q388. Which country’s Constitution inspired India’s idea of residuary powers?
✅ A) Canada
B) USA
C) UK
D) France
Explanation: Residuary powers borrowed from Canada.
Q389. Which country’s Constitution inspired India’s procedure for impeachment of President?
✅ A) USA
B) UK
C) France
D) Canada
Explanation: Impeachment procedure borrowed from USA.
Q390. Which country’s Constitution inspired India’s idea of suspension of Fundamental Rights during emergency?
✅ A) Germany (Weimar Constitution)
B) USA
C) UK
D) France
Explanation: Borrowed from Weimar Constitution.
Q391. Which country’s Constitution inspired India’s concept of single citizenship?
✅ A) UK
B) USA
C) France
D) Canada
Explanation: Single citizenship borrowed from UK.
Q392. Which country’s Constitution inspired India’s concept of judicial review?
✅ A) USA
B) UK
C) France
D) Canada
Explanation: Judicial review borrowed from USA.
Q393. Which country’s Constitution inspired India’s concept of procedure established by law?
✅ A) Japan
B) USA
C) UK
D) France
Explanation: Borrowed from Japan.
Q394. Which country’s Constitution inspired India’s concept of equal protection of laws?
✅ A) USA
B) UK
C) France
D) Canada
Explanation: Equal protection borrowed from USA.
Q395. Which country’s Constitution inspired India’s concept of parliamentary privileges?
✅ A) UK
B) USA
C) France
D) Canada
Explanation: Parliamentary privileges borrowed from UK.
Q396. Which country’s Constitution inspired India’s concept of cabinet system?
✅ A) UK
B) USA
C) France
D) Canada
Explanation: Cabinet system borrowed from UK.
Q397. Which country’s Constitution inspired India’s concept of writ jurisdiction?
✅ A) UK
B) USA
C) France
D) Canada
Explanation: Writ jurisdiction borrowed from UK.
Q398. Which country’s Constitution inspired India’s concept of fundamental duties?
✅ A) USSR (Russia)
B) USA
C) UK
D) France
Explanation: Fundamental duties borrowed from USSR.
Q399. Which languages are currently proposed for inclusion in Eighth Schedule?
✅ A) Bhojpuri, Rajasthani, Tulu, Garhwali, etc.
B) Sindhi
C) Konkani
D) Bodo
Explanation: Several languages are pending inclusion in Eighth Schedule.
Q400. Which Schedule is often debated for expansion due to language demands?
✅ A) Eighth Schedule
B) Seventh Schedule
C) Ninth Schedule
D) Twelfth Schedule
Explanation: Eighth Schedule is debated for inclusion of more languages.
Q401. Assertion (A): First Schedule lists States and Union Territories.
Reason (R): Article 1 defines India as a Union of States.
✅ A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A is true, R is false
D) A is false, R is true
Explanation: First Schedule lists States/UTs, explained by Article 1.
Q402. Assertion (A): Second Schedule deals with salaries of constitutional authorities.
Reason (R): It is linked with Articles 59, 125, 148, etc.
✅ A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A is true, R is false
D) A is false, R is true
Explanation: Second Schedule covers salaries, linked with multiple Articles.
Q403. Assertion (A): Third Schedule prescribes forms of oath and affirmation.
Reason (R): It applies only to Members of Parliament.
✅ C) A is true, R is false
Explanation: Third Schedule applies to multiple offices, not just MPs.
Q404. Assertion (A): Fourth Schedule allocates seats in Rajya Sabha.
Reason (R): It is linked with Article 80.
✅ A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation: Fourth Schedule allocates Rajya Sabha seats via Article 80.
Q405. Assertion (A): Fifth Schedule deals with Scheduled Areas.
Reason (R): It applies to Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram.
✅ C) A is true, R is false
Explanation: Sixth Schedule applies to those States, not Fifth.
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Q406. Match the Following:
Schedules ↔ Subjects
1. First Schedule → A. Oaths
2. Second Schedule → B. Salaries
3. Third Schedule → C. States & UTs
4. Fourth Schedule → D. Rajya Sabha seats
✅ Correct Match: 1‑C, 2‑B, 3‑A, 4‑D
Explanation: Each Schedule has distinct subject matter.
Q407. Match the Following:
Schedules ↔ Linked Articles
1. Fifth Schedule → A. Article 244(1)
2. Sixth Schedule → B. Article 244(2)
3. Seventh Schedule → C. Articles 246–254
4. Eighth Schedule → D. Articles 344, 351
✅ Correct Match: 1‑A, 2‑B, 3‑C, 4‑D
Explanation: Each Schedule is tied to specific Articles.
Q408. Match the Following:
Amendments ↔ Impact
1. 21st Amendment → A. Sindhi added
2. 71st Amendment → B. Konkani, Manipuri, Nepali added
3. 92nd Amendment → C. Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, Santhali added
4. 73rd Amendment → D. Panchayati Raj (Eleventh Schedule)
✅ Correct Match: 1‑A, 2‑B, 3‑C, 4‑D
Explanation: Amendments expanded Schedules.
Q409. Match the Following:
Cases ↔ Principle
1. Kesavananda Bharati → A. Basic structure doctrine
2. Minerva Mills → B. Limited amending power
3. I.R. Coelho → C. Ninth Schedule reviewable
4. S.R. Bommai → D. Secularism & Article 356 review
✅ Correct Match: 1‑A, 2‑B, 3‑C, 4‑D
Explanation: Landmark cases shaped constitutional law.
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Q410. Chronology: Arrange in order of occurrence.
1. First Amendment (1951) → Ninth Schedule
2. 7th Amendment (1956) → State reorganisation
3. 36th Amendment (1975) → Sikkim added
4. 42nd Amendment (1976) → Subjects shifted to Concurrent List
✅ Correct Order: 1, 2, 3, 4
Explanation: Chronological order of Amendments.
Q411. Chronology: Languages added to Eighth Schedule.
1. Sindhi (1967)
2. Konkani, Manipuri, Nepali (1992)
3. Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, Santhali (2003)
✅ Correct Order: 1, 2, 3
Explanation: Languages added via Amendments.
Q412. Chronology: States created.
1. Nagaland (1962)
2. Haryana (1966)
3. Sikkim (1975)
4. Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Goa (1987)
✅ Correct Order: 1, 2, 3, 4
Explanation: States created in sequence.
Q413. Chronology: Emergency provisions invoked.
1. 1962 (China war)
2. 1971 (Pakistan war)
3. 1975 (Internal emergency)
✅ Correct Order: 1, 2, 3
Explanation: National Emergencies declared in sequence.
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Q414. Assertion (A): Ninth Schedule shields laws from judicial review.
Reason (R): Article 31B validates them.
✅ A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation: Ninth Schedule laws validated by Article 31B.
Q415. Assertion (A): Tenth Schedule deals with defection.
Reason (R): Added by 52nd Amendment.
✅ A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation: Tenth Schedule added by 52nd Amendment.
Q416. Assertion (A): Eleventh Schedule lists 29 subjects.
Reason (R): Added by 74th Amendment.
✅ C) A is true, R is false
Explanation: Eleventh Schedule was added by 73rd Amendment.
Q417. Assertion (A): Twelfth Schedule lists 18 subjects.
Reason (R): Added by 74th Amendment.
✅ A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation: Twelfth Schedule added by 74th Amendment.
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Q418. Match the Following:
Schedules ↔ Nicknames
1. Ninth Schedule → A. Shield Schedule
2. Tenth Schedule → B. Defection Schedule
3. Eleventh Schedule → C. Panchayat Schedule
4. Twelfth Schedule → D. Municipality Schedule
✅ Correct Match: 1‑A, 2‑B, 3‑C, 4‑D
Explanation: Popular nicknames of Schedules.
Q419. Match the Following:
Emergency Types ↔ Articles
1. National Emergency → A. Article 352
2. State Emergency → B. Article 356
3. Financial Emergency → C. Article 360
✅ Correct Match: 1‑A, 2‑B, 3‑C
Explanation: Emergency provisions linked to Articles.
Q420. Match the Following:
Special Provisions ↔ Articles
1. J&K (before 2019) → A. Article 370
2. Other States → B. Article 371
3. Continuation of laws → C. Article 372
✅ Correct Match: 1‑A, 2‑B, 3‑C
Explanation: Special provisions linked to Articles.
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Q421. Chronology: Constitutional Amendments.
1. 52nd Amendment (1985) → Tenth Schedule
2. 73rd Amendment (1992) → Eleventh Schedule
3. 74th Amendment (1992) → Twelfth Schedule
4. 92nd Amendment (2003) → Languages added
✅ Correct Order: 1, 2, 3, 4
Explanation: Amendments in sequence.
Q422. Chronology: State Reorganisation Acts.
1. Bombay Reorganisation (1960)
2. Punjab Reorganisation (1966)
3. North‑Eastern Areas Reorganisation (1971)
4. Bihar/MP/UP Reorganisation (2000)
✅ Correct Order: 1, 2, 3, 4
Explanation: State reorganisations in order.
Q423. Chronology: UT mergers/reorganisations.
1. Dadra & Nagar Haveli merger (2020)
2. J&K Reorganisation (2019)
✅ Correct Order: 2, 1
Explanation: J&K reorganised first, then UT merger.
Q424. Chronology: Classical languages declared.
1. Tamil (2004)
2. Sanskrit (2005)
3. Kannada & Telugu (2008)
4. Malayalam (2013)
5. Odia (2014)
✅ Correct Order: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
Explanation: Classical languages declared in sequence.
Q425. Chronology: Major constitutional cases.
1. Golaknath vs State of Punjab (1967) → Parliament cannot amend Fundamental Rights
2. Kesavananda Bharati vs State of Kerala (1973) → Basic structure doctrine
3. Minerva Mills vs Union of India (1980) → Limited amending power
4. I.R. Coelho vs State of Tamil Nadu (2007) → Ninth Schedule laws reviewable
✅ Correct Order: 1, 2, 3, 4
Explanation: These landmark cases progressively defined limits of Parliament’s amending power and scope of judicial review.
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