Population and Urbanization 

Population & Urbanization MCQs (250 Questions) | Complete Exam Practice, Census, Migration & Urban Challenges


Q1. The term "demographic dividend" refers to:  
✅ A) Economic growth potential from a large working-age population  
B) Growth from subsidies only  
C) Growth from agriculture only  
D) Growth is irrelevant  

Explanation: When the working-age group is larger than dependents, productivity rises.

Q2. India’s population crossed 1 billion in:  
✅ A) 2000  
B) 1991  
C) 1981  
D) 2011  

Explanation: Census 2001 recorded India’s population at over 1 billion.

Q3. The first official Census in India was conducted in:  
✅ A) 1872  
B) 1947  
C) 1951  
D) 1961  

Explanation: First complete Census was in 1872 under British rule.

Q4. India’s population density is highest in:  
✅ A) Bihar  
B) Rajasthan  
C) Kerala  
D) Punjab  

Explanation: Bihar has the highest population density.

Q5. The crude birth rate measures:  
✅ A) Number of live births per 1000 population per year  
B) Deaths per 1000 population  
C) Fertility rate  
D) Growth rate only  

Explanation: Birth rate is a key demographic indicator.

Q6. The crude death rate measures:  
✅ A) Number of deaths per 1000 population per year  
B) Births per 1000 population  
C) Fertility rate  
D) Growth rate only  

Explanation: Death rate indicates mortality trends.

Q7. Fertility rate refers to:  
✅ A) Average number of children born per woman  
B) Births per 1000 population  
C) Deaths per 1000 population  
D) Growth rate only  

Explanation: Fertility rate is a measure of reproductive behavior.

Q8. India’s demographic transition is currently in:  
✅ A) Phase III (declining fertility, moderate growth)  
B) Phase I  
C) Phase II  
D) Phase IV  

Explanation: India is moving toward stabilization.

Q9. The dependency ratio measures:  
✅ A) Ratio of dependents (0–14, 65+) to working-age population  
B) Ratio of workers to GDP  
C) Ratio of subsidies to growth  
D) Ratio is irrelevant  

Explanation: Indicates economic burden on working population.

Q10. The literacy rate in Census 2011 was:  
✅ A) 74%  
B) 65%  
C) 80%  
D) 60%  

Explanation: Census 2011 recorded literacy at 74%.

Q11. The sex ratio in Census 2011 was:  
✅ A) 940 females per 1000 males  
B) 1000 females per 1000 males  
C) 850 females per 1000 males  
D) 960 females per 1000 males  

Explanation: Sex ratio improved to 940 in 2011.

Q12. The working-age population in India is:  
✅ A) 15–64 years  
B) 0–14 years  
C) 65+ years  
D) 10–50 years  

Explanation: Standard definition is 15–64 years.

Q13. Population explosion refers to:  
✅ A) Rapid and uncontrolled population growth  
B) Decline in population  
C) Migration only  
D) Explosion is irrelevant  

Explanation: India faced population explosion post‑1950s.

Q14. The demographic dividend is expected to last until:  
✅ A) 2055–2060  
B) 2025  
C) 2030  
D) 2100  

Explanation: India’s working-age advantage will last till mid‑21st century.

Q15. Infant mortality rate measures:  
✅ A) Deaths of infants under 1 year per 1000 live births  
B) Deaths of adults  
C) Births per 1000 population  
D) Fertility rate  

Explanation: IMR is a key health indicator.

Q16. Maternal mortality ratio measures:  
✅ A) Maternal deaths per 100,000 live births  
B) Infant deaths  
C) Fertility rate  
D) Growth rate  

Explanation: MMR reflects maternal health.

Q17. Life expectancy at birth in India (2011 Census) was:  
✅ A) Around 67 years  
B) 55 years  
C) 75 years  
D) 80 years  

Explanation: Life expectancy improved steadily.

Q18. Population density in India (2011 Census) was:  
✅ A) 382 persons per sq km  
B) 500 persons per sq km  
C) 250 persons per sq km  
D) 600 persons per sq km  

Explanation: Census 2011 recorded 382 persons/sq km.

Q19. The state with lowest population density is:  
✅ A) Arunachal Pradesh  
B) Bihar  
C) Kerala  
D) Punjab  

Explanation: Arunachal Pradesh has sparse population.

Q20. The state with highest literacy rate is:  
✅ A) Kerala  
B) Bihar  
C) Rajasthan  
D) UP  

Explanation: Kerala consistently leads in literacy.

Q21. The state with lowest sex ratio is:  
✅ A) Haryana  
B) Kerala  
C) Bihar  
D) Tamil Nadu  

Explanation: Haryana has historically low sex ratio.

Q22. The concept of “population stabilization” means:  
✅ A) Achieving replacement level fertility  
B) Reducing subsidies  
C) Increasing migration  
D) Stabilization is irrelevant  

Explanation: Replacement fertility ensures stable population.

Q23. The replacement fertility rate is:  
✅ A) Around 2.1 children per woman  
B) 1.0  
C) 3.0  
D) 4.0  

Explanation: 2.1 ensures population replacement.

Q24. India’s population policy (2000) aimed at:  
✅ A) Achieving replacement fertility by 2010–2045  
B) Reducing subsidies only  
C) Increasing migration  
D) Policy is irrelevant  

Explanation: NPP 2000 set stabilization targets.

Q25. Population growth impacts:  
✅ A) Employment, resources, environment  
B) Subsidies only  
C) Services only  
D) Impact is irrelevant  

Explanation: Growth affects economy and ecology.

Q26. The Census in India is conducted every:  
✅ A) 10 years  
B) 5 years  
C) 20 years  
D) 15 years  

Explanation: Decennial census is standard.

Q27. The Registrar General & Census Commissioner conducts:  
✅ A) Census of India  
B) Elections  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Role is irrelevant  

Explanation: Census authority is Registrar General.

Q28. The first post‑independence Census was in:  
✅ A) 1951  
B) 1947  
C) 1961  
D) 1971  

Explanation: 1951 Census was first after independence.

Q29. India’s population in 2011 Census was:  
✅ A) 1.21 billion  
B) 1.0 billion  
C) 1.5 billion  
D) 900 million  

Explanation: Census 2011 recorded 1.21 billion.

Q30. India is projected to surpass China’s population by:  
✅ A) 2023  
B) 2030  
C) 2040  
D) 2050  

Explanation: UN projections show India overtaking China.

Q31. The term “population pyramid” shows:  
✅ A) Age and sex distribution of population  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Pyramid is irrelevant  

Explanation: Pyramid depicts demographic structure.

Q32. India’s median age in 2020 was:  
✅ A) Around 28 years  
B) 20 years  
C) 35 years  
D) 40 years  

Explanation: India has a young population.

Q33. The working-age population share in India is:  
✅ A) Around 65%  
B) 50%  
C) 40%  
D) 30%  

Explanation: Majority are in productive age group.

Q34. The youth bulge refers to:  
✅ A) Large proportion of young people in population  
B) Large proportion of elderly  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Bulge is irrelevant  

Explanation: Youth bulge drives demographic dividend.

Q35. Population growth rate in India (2011 Census) was:  
✅ A) 17.7% (2001–2011)  
B) 25%  
C) 10%  
D) 5%  

Explanation: Growth slowed compared to earlier decades.

Q36. The state with highest growth rate (2001–2011) was:  
✅ A) Bihar  
B) Kerala  
C) Tamil Nadu  
D) Punjab  

Explanation: Bihar recorded highest growth.

Q37. The state with lowest growth rate (2001–2011) was:  
✅ A) Kerala  
B) Bihar  
C) Rajasthan  
D) UP  

Explanation: Kerala had lowest growth.

Q38. Urban population share in 2011 Census was:  
✅ A) 31%  
B) 25%  
C) 40%  
D) 50%  

Explanation: 31% of Indians lived in urban areas.

Q39. Rural population share in India (2011 Census) was:  
✅ A) 69%  
B) 50%  
C) 40%  
D) 31%  

Explanation: Census 2011 recorded 69% of Indians living in rural areas.

Q40. Urban population share in India (2011 Census) was:  
✅ A) 31%  
B) 50%  
C) 40%  
D) 69%  

Explanation: 31% of Indians lived in urban areas in 2011.

Q41. The decadal growth rate of population (2001–2011) was:  
✅ A) 17.7%  
B) 25%  
C) 10%  
D) 5%  

Explanation: Census 2011 showed a slowdown in growth to 17.7%.

Q42. The state with highest population (2011 Census) was:  
✅ A) Uttar Pradesh  
B) Bihar  
C) Maharashtra  
D) West Bengal  

Explanation: UP had over 200 million population in 2011.

Q43. The state with lowest population (2011 Census) was:  
✅ A) Sikkim  
B) Goa  
C) Nagaland  
D) Tripura  

Explanation: Sikkim recorded the lowest population.

Q44. The median age of India’s population in 2020 was:  
✅ A) 28 years  
B) 20 years  
C) 35 years  
D) 40 years  

Explanation: India has one of the youngest populations globally.

Q45. The youth bulge in India refers to:  
✅ A) Large proportion of young people in population  
B) Large proportion of elderly  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Bulge is irrelevant  

Explanation: Youth bulge drives demographic dividend.

Q46. The dependency ratio in India (2011 Census) was:  
✅ A) Around 54%  
B) 30%  
C) 70%  
D) 80%  

Explanation: Indicates economic burden on working population.

Q47. The fertility rate in India (2020) was:  
✅ A) Around 2.2 children per woman  
B) 3.0  
C) 1.5  
D) 4.0  

Explanation: Fertility rate is close to replacement level.

Q48. The replacement fertility rate is:  
✅ A) 2.1 children per woman  
B) 1.0  
C) 3.0  
D) 4.0  

Explanation: Replacement fertility ensures population stabilization.

Q49. India’s population policy (2000) aimed at:  
✅ A) Achieving replacement fertility by 2010–2045  
B) Reducing subsidies only  
C) Increasing migration  
D) Policy is irrelevant  

Explanation: NPP 2000 set stabilization targets.

Q50. Infant mortality rate (IMR) in India (2011) was:  
✅ A) Around 44 per 1000 live births  
B) 20  
C) 60  
D) 80  

Explanation: IMR declined steadily but remained high.

Q51. Maternal mortality ratio (MMR) in India (2011) was:  
✅ A) Around 212 per 100,000 live births  
B) 100  
C) 300  
D) 400  

Explanation: MMR reflects maternal health challenges.

Q52. Life expectancy at birth in India (2011) was:  
✅ A) Around 67 years  
B) 55 years  
C) 75 years  
D) 80 years  

Explanation: Life expectancy improved steadily.

Q53. The Registrar General & Census Commissioner conducts:  
✅ A) Census of India  
B) Elections  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Role is irrelevant  

Explanation: Census authority is Registrar General.

Q54. The first post‑independence Census was in:  
✅ A) 1951  
B) 1947  
C) 1961  
D) 1971  

Explanation: 1951 Census was first after independence.

Q55. India’s population in 2011 Census was:  
✅ A) 1.21 billion  
B) 1.0 billion  
C) 1.5 billion  
D) 900 million  

Explanation: Census 2011 recorded 1.21 billion.

Q56. India is projected to surpass China’s population by:  
✅ A) 2023  
B) 2030  
C) 2040  
D) 2050  

Explanation: UN projections show India overtaking China.

Q57. Population pyramid shows:  
✅ A) Age and sex distribution of population  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Pyramid is irrelevant  

Explanation: Pyramid depicts demographic structure.

Q58. The working-age population share in India is:  
✅ A) Around 65%  
B) 50%  
C) 40%  
D) 30%  

Explanation: Majority are in productive age group.

Q59. The youth bulge drives:  
✅ A) Demographic dividend and economic growth  
B) Decline in productivity  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Growth is irrelevant  

Explanation: Youth bulge boosts workforce.

Q60. Population growth impacts:  
✅ A) Employment, resources, environment  
B) Subsidies only  
C) Services only  
D) Impact is irrelevant  

Explanation: Growth affects economy and ecology.

Q61. The Census in India is conducted every:  
✅ A) 10 years  
B) 5 years  
C) 20 years  
D) 15 years  

Explanation: India follows a decennial census system.

Q62. The first complete Census in India was conducted in:  
✅ A) 1872  
B) 1947  
C) 1951  
D) 1961  

Explanation: The British initiated the first complete Census in 1872.

Q63. The first post‑independence Census was in:  
✅ A) 1951  
B) 1947  
C) 1961  
D) 1971  

Explanation: 1951 Census was the first after independence.

Q64. The Registrar General & Census Commissioner is responsible for:  
✅ A) Conducting Census of India  
B) Conducting elections  
C) Managing subsidies  
D) Role is irrelevant  

Explanation: Census authority lies with Registrar General.

Q65. The Census 2011 recorded India’s population as:  
✅ A) 1.21 billion  
B) 1.0 billion  
C) 1.5 billion  
D) 900 million  

Explanation: India’s population was 1.21 billion in 2011.

Q66. The literacy rate in Census 2011 was:  
✅ A) 74%  
B) 65%  
C) 80%  
D) 60%  

Explanation: Literacy improved to 74% in 2011.

Q67. The sex ratio in Census 2011 was:  
✅ A) 940 females per 1000 males  
B) 1000 females per 1000 males  
C) 850 females per 1000 males  
D) 960 females per 1000 males  

Explanation: Sex ratio improved to 940 in 2011.

Q68. The highest literacy rate among states (2011) was in:  
✅ A) Kerala  
B) Bihar  
C) Rajasthan  
D) UP  

Explanation: Kerala consistently leads in literacy.

Q69. The lowest literacy rate among states (2011) was in:  
✅ A) Bihar  
B) Kerala  
C) Punjab  
D) Tamil Nadu  

Explanation: Bihar recorded the lowest literacy rate.

Q70. The highest sex ratio among states (2011) was in:  
✅ A) Kerala  
B) Haryana  
C) Punjab  
D) Rajasthan  

Explanation: Kerala had the highest sex ratio.

Q71. The lowest sex ratio among states (2011) was in:  
✅ A) Haryana  
B) Kerala  
C) Bihar  
D) Tamil Nadu  

Explanation: Haryana had the lowest sex ratio.

Q72. The working‑age population in India is defined as:  
✅ A) 15–64 years  
B) 0–14 years  
C) 65+ years  
D) 10–50 years  

Explanation: Standard definition is 15–64 years.

Q73. The dependency ratio measures:  
✅ A) Ratio of dependents (0–14, 65+) to working‑age population  
B) Ratio of workers to GDP  
C) Ratio of subsidies to growth  
D) Ratio is irrelevant  

Explanation: Indicates economic burden on working population.

Q74. The child population (0–6 years) share in 2011 was:  
✅ A) Around 13%  
B) 20%  
C) 25%  
D) 30%  

Explanation: Census 2011 recorded child population at ~13%.

Q75. The elderly population (60+ years) share in 2011 was:  
✅ A) Around 8%  
B) 5%  
C) 12%  
D) 15%  

Explanation: Elderly share was ~8% in 2011.

Q76. The Scheduled Castes population share in 2011 was:  
✅ A) Around 16.6%  
B) 10%  
C) 20%  
D) 25%  

Explanation: SCs formed 16.6% of population.

Q77. The Scheduled Tribes population share in 2011 was:  
✅ A) Around 8.6%  
B) 5%  
C) 12%  
D) 15%  

Explanation: STs formed 8.6% of population.

Q78. The literacy gap between male and female in 2011 was:  
✅ A) Around 16%  
B) 10%  
C) 5%  
D) 20%  

Explanation: Male literacy was ~82%, female ~65%.

Q79. The Census 2011 recorded urban population share as:  
✅ A) 31%  
B) 25%  
C) 40%  
D) 50%  

Explanation: 31% of Indians lived in urban areas.

Q80. The Census 2011 recorded rural population share as:  
✅ A) 69%  
B) 50%  
C) 40%  
D) 31%  

Explanation: 69% of Indians lived in rural areas.

Q81. India launched its first family planning program in:  
✅ A) 1952  
B) 1961  
C) 1975  
D) 1980  

Explanation: India was the first country to adopt a national family planning program in 1952.

Q82. The National Population Policy (NPP) was announced in:  
✅ A) 2000  
B) 1991  
C) 1985  
D) 2010  

Explanation: NPP 2000 aimed at achieving replacement fertility.

Q83. The main goal of NPP 2000 was:  
✅ A) Population stabilization by mid‑21st century  
B) Increase fertility rate  
C) Reduce literacy gap only  
D) Goal is irrelevant  

Explanation: NPP targeted replacement fertility (2.1).

Q84. Replacement fertility rate is defined as:  
✅ A) 2.1 children per woman  
B) 1.0  
C) 3.0  
D) 4.0  

Explanation: Ensures stable population size.

Q85. Family planning program in India initially focused on:  
✅ A) Contraceptive distribution and awareness  
B) Liberalization  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Focus is irrelevant  

Explanation: Early programs emphasized birth control.

Q86. The Emergency period (1975–77) is remembered for:  
✅ A) Forced sterilization drives  
B) Liberalization  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Period is irrelevant  

Explanation: Coercive sterilization was a major criticism.

Q87. The contraceptive method most promoted in India is:  
✅ A) Female sterilization  
B) Male sterilization  
C) Condoms only  
D) Pills only  

Explanation: Female sterilization dominates family planning.

Q88. The unmet need for contraception refers to:  
✅ A) Women wanting to avoid pregnancy but not using contraception  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Term is irrelevant  

Explanation: Indicates gaps in family planning services.

Q89. Maternal mortality ratio (MMR) reflects:  
✅ A) Maternal deaths per 100,000 live births  
B) Infant deaths  
C) Fertility rate  
D) Growth rate  

Explanation: MMR is a key health indicator.

Q90. Infant mortality rate (IMR) reflects:  
✅ A) Deaths of infants under 1 year per 1000 live births  
B) Maternal deaths  
C) Fertility rate  
D) Growth rate  

Explanation: IMR measures child health.

Q91. The Reproductive and Child Health (RCH) program was launched in:  
✅ A) 1997  
B) 1985  
C) 2000  
D) 2010  

Explanation: RCH integrated family planning with maternal health.

Q92. Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) promotes:  
✅ A) Institutional deliveries to reduce maternal mortality  
B) Fertility increase  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Program is irrelevant  

Explanation: JSY incentivizes safe childbirth.

Q93. Mission Parivar Vikas focuses on:  
✅ A) High fertility districts in India  
B) Urban migration only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Mission is irrelevant  

Explanation: Targets districts with TFR > 3.

Q94. The contraceptive prevalence rate (CPR) measures:  
✅ A) Percentage of women using contraception  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Measure is irrelevant  

Explanation: CPR indicates family planning coverage.

Q95. The National Health Mission (NHM) integrates:  
✅ A) Family planning, maternal and child health  
B) Agriculture only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Mission is irrelevant  

Explanation: NHM covers reproductive health.

Q96. The two‑child norm has been debated in:  
✅ A) Population policy discussions  
B) Agriculture policy only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Debate is irrelevant  

Explanation: Some states considered two‑child norm.

Q97. The demographic dividend depends on:  
✅ A) Effective health, education, employment policies  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Dividend is irrelevant  

Explanation: Dividend requires supportive policies.

Q98. The National Family Health Survey (NFHS) provides:  
✅ A) Data on fertility, mortality, health indicators  
B) Agricultural data only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Survey is irrelevant  

Explanation: NFHS is key demographic survey.

Q99. NFHS‑5 (2019–21) showed India’s fertility rate at:  
✅ A) 2.0 (below replacement level)  
B) 3.0  
C) 1.5  
D) 2.5  

Explanation: Fertility declined below replacement.

Q100. NFHS‑5 showed contraceptive prevalence rate at:  
✅ A) Around 67%  
B) 50%  
C) 40%  
D) 30%  

Explanation: CPR improved significantly.

Q101. NFHS‑5 showed institutional delivery rate at:  
✅ A) Around 89%  
B) 50%  
C) 60%  
D) 70%  

Explanation: Institutional deliveries increased.

Q102. NFHS‑5 showed child mortality rate declining to:  
✅ A) Around 32 per 1000 live births  
B) 50  
C) 60  
D) 70  

Explanation: Child mortality improved.

Q103. NFHS‑5 showed female literacy rate at:  
✅ A) Around 70%  
B) 60%  
C) 80%  
D) 50%  

Explanation: Female literacy improved steadily.

Q104. NFHS‑5 showed anemia prevalence among women at:  
✅ A) Around 57%  
B) 40%  
C) 30%  
D) 20%  

Explanation: Anemia remains a major health challenge.

Q105. NFHS‑5 showed child stunting prevalence at:  
✅ A) Around 35%  
B) 20%  
C) 50%  
D) 10%  

Explanation: Stunting reflects malnutrition issues.

Q106. NFHS‑5 showed child wasting prevalence at:  
✅ A) Around 19%  
B) 10%  
C) 30%  
D) 25%  

Explanation: Wasting indicates acute malnutrition.

Q107. NFHS‑5 showed child underweight prevalence at:  
✅ A) Around 32%  
B) 20%  
C) 40%  
D) 10%  

Explanation: Underweight remains a concern.

Q108. NFHS‑5 showed total fertility rate below replacement in:  
✅ A) Most states except Bihar, UP, MP  
B) All states  
C) No states  
D) Only Kerala  

Explanation: High fertility persists in some states.

Q109. NFHS‑5 showed contraceptive use highest in:  
✅ A) Southern states like Kerala, Tamil Nadu  
B) Bihar  
C) UP  
D) Rajasthan  

Explanation: Southern states lead in family planning.

Q110. NFHS‑5 showed contraceptive use lowest in:  
✅ A) Bihar and UP  
B) Kerala  
C) Tamil Nadu  
D) Punjab  

Explanation: Northern states lag behind.

Q111. Population stabilization is expected by:  
✅ A) 2055–2060  
B) 2025  
C) 2030  
D) 2100  

Explanation: India’s demographic transition will stabilize mid‑century.

Q112. Family planning programs aim at:  
✅ A) Reducing fertility, improving health, empowering women  
B) Agriculture only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Aim is irrelevant  

Explanation: Family planning has multiple goals.

Q113. The unmet need for contraception in NFHS‑5 was:  
✅ A) Around 9%  
B) 20%  
C) 15%  
D) 5%  

Explanation: Indicates gaps in service delivery.

Q114. The contraceptive method most common in India is:  
✅ A) Female sterilization  
B) Male sterilization  
C) Condoms only  
D) Pills only  

Explanation: Female sterilization dominates.

Q115. Male sterilization prevalence in India is:  
✅ A) Less than 1%  
B) 10%  
C) 20%  
D) 30%  

Explanation: Male participation is very low.

Q116. Condom use prevalence in India is:  
✅ A) Around 10%  
B) 20%  
C) 5%  
D) 30%  

Explanation: Condom use is limited compared to sterilization.

Q117. Pills use prevalence in India is:  
✅ A) Around 5%  
B) 10%  
C) 20%  
D) 30%  

Explanation: Pills are less common.

Q118. IUD use prevalence in India is:  
✅ A) Around 2%  
B) 10%  
C) 20%  
D) 30%  

Explanation: IUD adoption is low.

Q119. Family planning success depends on:  
✅ A) Awareness, accessibility, cultural acceptance  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Success is irrelevant  

Explanation: Social factors influence outcomes.

Q120. Overall, India’s population policy reflects:  
✅ A) A shift from controlling numbers to improving health and quality of life  
B) Focus only on subsidies  
C) Focus only on agriculture  
D) Policy is irrelevant  

Explanation: Modern policy emphasizes reproductive health, women’s empowerment, and stabilization.

Q121. The National Population Policy 2000 set the immediate objective as:  
✅ A) Meeting unmet needs for contraception, health care, and infrastructure  
B) Reducing literacy gap only  
C) Increasing fertility rate  
D) Objective is irrelevant  

Explanation: Immediate goals were service delivery improvements.

Q122. The medium‑term objective of NPP 2000 was:  
✅ A) Achieving replacement fertility by 2010–2020  
B) Increasing fertility rate  
C) Reducing subsidies only  
D) Objective is irrelevant  

Explanation: Medium‑term aimed at replacement level fertility.

Q123. The long‑term objective of NPP 2000 was:  
✅ A) Population stabilization by 2045  
B) Fertility increase  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Objective is irrelevant  

Explanation: Stabilization was targeted by mid‑21st century.

Q124. The National Family Welfare Program was renamed as:  
✅ A) Family Welfare Program in 1977  
B) Population Control Program  
C) Health Subsidy Program  
D) Name is irrelevant  

Explanation: Renamed to emphasize welfare, not coercion.

Q125. The Reproductive and Child Health (RCH) program integrated:  
✅ A) Family planning with maternal and child health  
B) Agriculture only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Integration is irrelevant  

Explanation: RCH broadened scope beyond contraception.

Q126. Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) provides:  
✅ A) Cash incentives for institutional deliveries  
B) Fertility increase  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Program is irrelevant  

Explanation: JSY promotes safe childbirth.

Q127. Mission Parivar Vikas targets:  
✅ A) High fertility districts with TFR > 3  
B) Urban migration only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Mission is irrelevant  

Explanation: Focused on lagging districts.

Q128. The National Health Mission (NHM) covers:  
✅ A) Family planning, maternal and child health, communicable diseases  
B) Agriculture only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Mission is irrelevant  

Explanation: NHM integrates health and family welfare.

Q129. NFHS surveys are conducted by:  
✅ A) Ministry of Health & Family Welfare  
B) Planning Commission  
C) RBI  
D) Subsidy board  

Explanation: NFHS provides demographic and health data.

Q130. NFHS‑5 (2019–21) showed India’s fertility rate at:  
✅ A) 2.0 (below replacement level)  
B) 3.0  
C) 1.5  
D) 2.5  

Explanation: Fertility declined below replacement.

Q131. NFHS‑5 showed contraceptive prevalence rate at:  
✅ A) Around 67%  
B) 50%  
C) 40%  
D) 30%  

Explanation: CPR improved significantly.

Q132. NFHS‑5 showed institutional delivery rate at:  
✅ A) Around 89%  
B) 50%  
C) 60%  
D) 70%  

Explanation: Institutional deliveries increased.

Q133. NFHS‑5 showed child mortality rate declining to:  
✅ A) Around 32 per 1000 live births  
B) 50  
C) 60  
D) 70  

Explanation: Child mortality improved.

Q134. NFHS‑5 showed female literacy rate at:  
✅ A) Around 70%  
B) 60%  
C) 80%  
D) 50%  

Explanation: Female literacy improved steadily.

Q135. NFHS‑5 showed anemia prevalence among women at:  
✅ A) Around 57%  
B) 40%  
C) 30%  
D) 20%  

Explanation: Anemia remains a major health challenge.

Q136. NFHS‑5 showed child stunting prevalence at:  
✅ A) Around 35%  
B) 20%  
C) 50%  
D) 10%  

Explanation: Stunting reflects malnutrition issues.

Q137. NFHS‑5 showed child wasting prevalence at:  
✅ A) Around 19%  
B) 10%  
C) 30%  
D) 25%  

Explanation: Wasting indicates acute malnutrition.

Q138. NFHS‑5 showed child underweight prevalence at:  
✅ A) Around 32%  
B) 20%  
C) 40%  
D) 10%  

Explanation: Underweight remains a concern.

Q139. NFHS‑5 showed total fertility rate below replacement in:  
✅ A) Most states except Bihar, UP, MP  
B) All states  
C) No states  
D) Only Kerala  

Explanation: High fertility persists in some states.

Q140. NFHS‑5 showed contraceptive use highest in:  
✅ A) Southern states like Kerala, Tamil Nadu  
B) Bihar  
C) UP  
D) Rajasthan  

Explanation: Southern states lead in family planning.

Q141. NFHS‑5 showed contraceptive use lowest in:  
✅ A) Bihar and UP  
B) Kerala  
C) Tamil Nadu  
D) Punjab  

Explanation: Northern states lag behind.

Q142. Population stabilization is expected by:  
✅ A) 2055–2060  
B) 2025  
C) 2030  
D) 2100  

Explanation: India’s demographic transition will stabilize mid‑century.

Q143. Family planning programs aim at:  
✅ A) Reducing fertility, improving health, empowering women  
B) Agriculture only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Aim is irrelevant  

Explanation: Family planning has multiple goals.

Q144. The unmet need for contraception in NFHS‑5 was:  
✅ A) Around 9%  
B) 20%  
C) 15%  
D) 5%  

Explanation: Indicates gaps in service delivery.

Q145. The contraceptive method most common in India is:  
✅ A) Female sterilization  
B) Male sterilization  
C) Condoms only  
D) Pills only  

Explanation: Female sterilization dominates.

Q146. Male sterilization prevalence in India is:  
✅ A) Less than 1%  
B) 10%  
C) 20%  
D) 30%  

Explanation: Male participation is very low.

Q147. Condom use prevalence in India is:  
✅ A) Around 10%  
B) 20%  
C) 5%  
D) 30%  

Explanation: Condom use is limited compared to sterilization.

Q148. Pills use prevalence in India is:  
✅ A) Around 5%  
B) 10%  
C) 20%  
D) 30%  

Explanation: Pills are less common.

Q149. IUD use prevalence in India is:  
✅ A) Around 2%  
B) 10%  
C) 20%  
D) 30%  

Explanation: IUD adoption is low.

Q150. Family planning success depends on:  
✅ A) Awareness, accessibility, cultural acceptance  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Success is irrelevant  

Explanation: Social factors influence outcomes.

Q151. Migration refers to:  
✅ A) Movement of people from one place to another  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Term is irrelevant  

Explanation: Migration includes rural–urban, interstate, and international movement.

Q152. Rural–urban migration in India is driven by:  
✅ A) Employment opportunities in cities  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Driver is irrelevant  

Explanation: Cities attract rural workers for jobs.

Q153. Push factors in migration include:  
✅ A) Poverty, unemployment, lack of services in rural areas  
B) Urban employment opportunities  
C) Fertility rate only  
D) Factors are irrelevant  

Explanation: Push factors drive people away from origin.

Q154. Pull factors in migration include:  
✅ A) Better jobs, education, healthcare in cities  
B) Poverty in rural areas  
C) Fertility rate only  
D) Factors are irrelevant  

Explanation: Pull factors attract migrants to destinations.

Q155. Seasonal migration is common among:  
✅ A) Agricultural laborers and construction workers  
B) Urban professionals only  
C) Fertility rate only  
D) Migration is irrelevant  

Explanation: Seasonal migration occurs for temporary work.

Q156. Interstate migration in India is highest from:  
✅ A) Bihar and UP to Maharashtra, Delhi  
B) Kerala to Tamil Nadu  
C) Punjab to Haryana  
D) Migration is irrelevant  

Explanation: Bihar and UP supply large migrant labor.

Q157. Urbanization refers to:  
✅ A) Increase in proportion of population living in urban areas  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Term is irrelevant  

Explanation: Urbanization is measured by urban population share.

Q158. India’s urban population share in 2011 was:  
✅ A) 31%  
B) 25%  
C) 40%  
D) 50%  

Explanation: Census 2011 recorded 31% urban population.

Q159. Rural population share in 2011 was:  
✅ A) 69%  
B) 50%  
C) 40%  
D) 31%  

Explanation: Majority lived in rural areas.

Q160. The largest urban agglomeration in India (2011) was:  
✅ A) Greater Mumbai  
B) Delhi  
C) Kolkata  
D) Chennai  

Explanation: Mumbai was largest urban agglomeration.

Q161. The fastest growing urban agglomeration (2011) was:  
✅ A) Delhi  
B) Mumbai  
C) Kolkata  
D) Chennai  

Explanation: Delhi grew fastest in 2001–2011.

Q162. Megacities are defined as:  
✅ A) Cities with population over 10 million  
B) Cities with population over 1 million  
C) Cities with population over 5 million  
D) Definition is irrelevant  

Explanation: UN defines megacities as >10 million.

Q163. India had how many megacities in 2011?  
✅ A) 3 (Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata)  
B) 5  
C) 10  
D) 2  

Explanation: Census 2011 identified 3 megacities.

Q164. Urbanization is highest in:  
✅ A) Delhi and Chandigarh  
B) Bihar  
C) UP  
D) Assam  

Explanation: Delhi and Chandigarh have >90% urban population.

Q165. Urbanization is lowest in:  
✅ A) Himachal Pradesh and Bihar  
B) Delhi  
C) Kerala  
D) Punjab  

Explanation: These states have low urban shares.

Q166. Migration contributes to:  
✅ A) Urban growth, labor supply, remittances  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Contribution is irrelevant  

Explanation: Migration drives urbanization.

Q167. Census defines urban areas based on:  
✅ A) Population >5000, density >400/sq km, 75% male workers in non‑agriculture  
B) Population >1000 only  
C) Fertility rate only  
D) Definition is irrelevant  

Explanation: Census criteria classify urban settlements.

Q168. Urban agglomeration refers to:  
✅ A) Continuous urban spread including city and adjoining towns  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Term is irrelevant  

Explanation: UA includes core city and suburbs.

Q169. Metropolitan cities are defined as:  
✅ A) Cities with population over 1 million  
B) Cities with population over 10 million  
C) Fertility rate only  
D) Definition is irrelevant  

Explanation: Metros are >1 million population.

Q170. India had how many metropolitan cities in 2011?  
✅ A) 53  
B) 20  
C) 10  
D) 100  

Explanation: Census 2011 identified 53 metros.

Q171. Urbanization challenges include:  
✅ A) Slums, congestion, pollution, unemployment  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Challenges are irrelevant  

Explanation: Urban growth creates multiple issues.

Q172. Slum population in India (2011) was:  
✅ A) Around 65 million  
B) 20 million  
C) 100 million  
D) 10 million  

Explanation: Census 2011 recorded ~65 million slum dwellers.

Q173. Largest slum in India is:  
✅ A) Dharavi in Mumbai  
B) Seemapuri in Delhi  
C) Kolkata slums  
D) Chennai slums  

Explanation: Dharavi is Asia’s largest slum.

Q174. Migration impacts rural areas by:  
✅ A) Reducing labor supply, increasing remittances  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Impact is irrelevant  

Explanation: Migration changes rural economy.

Q175. Migration impacts urban areas by:  
✅ A) Increasing population, pressure on infrastructure  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Impact is irrelevant  

Explanation: Migrants strain urban services.

Q176. Circular migration refers to:  
✅ A) Repeated movement between origin and destination  
B) Permanent migration only  
C) Fertility rate only  
D) Term is irrelevant  

Explanation: Circular migration is common among workers.

Q177. International migration from India is highest to:  
✅ A) Gulf countries  
B) USA  
C) UK  
D) Australia  

Explanation: Gulf attracts Indian labor migrants.

Q178. Remittances from migrants contribute to:  
✅ A) Foreign exchange reserves and rural incomes  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Contribution is irrelevant  

Explanation: Remittances are vital for economy.

Q179. India is the world’s largest recipient of:  
✅ A) Remittances  
B) Fertility rate  
C) Subsidies  
D) Title is irrelevant  

Explanation: India receives highest remittances globally.

Q180. Urbanization rate in India is projected to reach:  
✅ A) Around 40% by 2030  
B) 50% by 2020  
C) 60% by 2050  
D) 70% by 2030  

Explanation: UN projects ~40% urban by 2030.

Q181. Smart Cities Mission was launched in:  
✅ A) 2015  
B) 2010  
C) 2000  
D) 2020  

Explanation: Mission aims at modern urban infrastructure.

Q182. AMRUT scheme focuses on:  
✅ A) Urban water supply, sewerage, green spaces  
B) Agriculture only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Focus is irrelevant  

Explanation: AMRUT improves basic urban services.

Q183. PMAY (Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana) aims at:  
✅ A) Affordable housing for all by 2022  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Aim is irrelevant  

Explanation: PMAY targets housing for urban poor.

Q184. HRIDAY scheme focuses on:  
✅ A) Heritage city development and conservation  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Focus is irrelevant  

Explanation: HRIDAY preserves heritage cities.

Q185. Urban transport challenges include:  
✅ A) Congestion, pollution, inadequate public transport  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Challenges are irrelevant  

Explanation: Transport is a major urban issue.

Q186. Urban poverty is measured by:  
✅ A) Percentage of urban population below poverty line  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Measure is irrelevant  

Explanation: Poverty persists in cities.

Q187. Urban unemployment is measured by:  
✅ A) Percentage of urban labor force without jobs  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Measure is irrelevant  

Explanation: Unemployment is a key challenge.

Q188. Urban pollution includes:  
✅ A) Air, water, noise, solid waste  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Pollution is irrelevant  

Explanation: Pollution affects urban health.

Q189. Urban sanitation challenges include:  
✅ A) Lack of toilets, waste disposal, drainage  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Challenges are irrelevant  

Explanation: Sanitation is critical for urban health.

Q190. Overall, migration and urbanization in India reflect:  
✅ A) Structural transformation of economy and society  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Reflection is irrelevant  

Explanation: Migration and urbanization show India’s shift from agrarian to industrial/service economy.

Q191. The Census 2011 defined slum households as:  
✅ A) Poorly built, congested, unhygienic settlements with inadequate infrastructure  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Definition is irrelevant  

Explanation: Slums are identified by poor housing and lack of services.

Q192. The largest share of migrants in India are:  
✅ A) Women migrating for marriage  
B) Men migrating for jobs  
C) Children migrating for education  
D) Elderly migrating for health  

Explanation: Census shows marriage is the biggest reason for migration.

Q193. Urban primacy refers to:  
✅ A) Dominance of one city in urban system  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Term is irrelevant  

Explanation: Example: Mumbai dominates Maharashtra’s urban system.

Q194. The concept of “urban sprawl” refers to:  
✅ A) Unplanned expansion of cities into rural areas  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Concept is irrelevant  

Explanation: Sprawl leads to congestion and environmental issues.

Q195. The informal sector in urban areas provides:  
✅ A) Employment to majority of migrants in low‑income jobs  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Sector is irrelevant  

Explanation: Informal sector absorbs migrant labor.

Q196. The Census 2011 recorded migration rate in India at:  
✅ A) Around 37% of population  
B) 20%  
C) 50%  
D) 10%  

Explanation: Over one‑third of Indians are migrants.

Q197. Circular migration is common among:  
✅ A) Construction and seasonal agricultural workers  
B) Urban professionals only  
C) Fertility rate only  
D) Migration is irrelevant  

Explanation: Workers move repeatedly between origin and destination.

Q198. International migration from Kerala is mainly to:  
✅ A) Gulf countries  
B) USA  
C) UK  
D) Australia  

Explanation: Gulf migration dominates Kerala’s diaspora.

Q199. Remittances from migrants contribute to:  
✅ A) Rural development and foreign exchange reserves  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Contribution is irrelevant  

Explanation: Remittances are vital for households and economy.

Q200. India is the world’s largest recipient of:  
✅ A) Remittances  
B) Fertility rate  
C) Subsidies  
D) Title is irrelevant  

Explanation: India consistently tops global remittance inflows.

Q201. Major challenges of urbanization in India include:  
✅ A) Slums, congestion, unemployment, pollution  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Challenges are irrelevant  

Explanation: Rapid urban growth creates multiple socio‑economic issues.

Q202. Slum population in India (2011 Census) was:  
✅ A) Around 65 million  
B) 20 million  
C) 100 million  
D) 10 million  

Explanation: Census 2011 recorded ~65 million slum dwellers.

Q203. The largest slum in India is:  
✅ A) Dharavi in Mumbai  
B) Seemapuri in Delhi  
C) Kolkata slums  
D) Chennai slums  

Explanation: Dharavi is Asia’s largest slum.

Q204. Urban poverty is measured by:  
✅ A) Percentage of urban population below poverty line  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Measure is irrelevant  

Explanation: Poverty persists in cities despite growth.

Q205. Urban unemployment is measured by:  
✅ A) Percentage of urban labor force without jobs  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Measure is irrelevant  

Explanation: Unemployment is a key urban challenge.

Q206. Urban transport challenges include:  
✅ A) Congestion, pollution, inadequate public transport  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Challenges are irrelevant  

Explanation: Transport is a major urban issue.

Q207. Urban pollution includes:  
✅ A) Air, water, noise, solid waste  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Pollution is irrelevant  

Explanation: Pollution affects urban health.

Q208. Urban sanitation challenges include:  
✅ A) Lack of toilets, waste disposal, drainage  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Challenges are irrelevant  

Explanation: Sanitation is critical for urban health.

Q209. Water scarcity in cities is caused by:  
✅ A) Overpopulation, poor infrastructure, pollution  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Cause is irrelevant  

Explanation: Urban water supply is under stress.

Q210. Solid waste management in cities faces:  
✅ A) Collection, segregation, disposal problems  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Problem is irrelevant  

Explanation: Waste management is inadequate in many cities.

Q211. Urban housing shortage is addressed by:  
✅ A) PMAY (Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana)  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Program is irrelevant  

Explanation: PMAY targets affordable housing.

Q212. Smart Cities Mission aims at:  
✅ A) Modern infrastructure, ICT, sustainability  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Mission is irrelevant  

Explanation: Smart Cities modernize urban governance.

Q213. AMRUT scheme focuses on:  
✅ A) Urban water supply, sewerage, green spaces  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Focus is irrelevant  

Explanation: AMRUT improves basic urban services.

Q214. HRIDAY scheme focuses on:  
✅ A) Heritage city development and conservation  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Focus is irrelevant  

Explanation: HRIDAY preserves heritage cities.

Q215. Urban poverty alleviation programs include:  
✅ A) SJSRY, NULM (livelihood missions)  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Programs are irrelevant  

Explanation: Programs target urban poor employment.

Q216. NULM stands for:  
✅ A) National Urban Livelihoods Mission  
B) National Urban Literacy Mission  
C) National Urban Law Mission  
D) Name is irrelevant  

Explanation: NULM provides skill training and jobs.

Q217. Urban health challenges include:  
✅ A) Overcrowding, pollution, inadequate hospitals  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Challenges are irrelevant  

Explanation: Health infrastructure lags behind demand.

Q218. Urban education challenges include:  
✅ A) Overcrowded schools, inequality, dropouts  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Challenges are irrelevant  

Explanation: Education gaps persist in cities.

Q219. Urban crime challenges include:  
✅ A) Theft, violence, drug abuse, insecurity  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Challenges are irrelevant  

Explanation: Crime rates rise with urban stress.

Q220. Urban governance challenges include:  
✅ A) Weak municipal finances, poor planning, corruption  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Challenges are irrelevant  

Explanation: Governance capacity is limited.

Q221. Urban climate challenges include:  
✅ A) Heat islands, floods, pollution  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Challenges are irrelevant  

Explanation: Climate change worsens urban risks.

Q222. Urban resilience requires:  
✅ A) Disaster preparedness, infrastructure, community participation  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Requirement is irrelevant  

Explanation: Resilience reduces disaster impacts.

Q223. Urban inequality is reflected in:  
✅ A) Slums vs gated communities, income gaps  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Reflection is irrelevant  

Explanation: Inequality is stark in cities.

Q224. Urban informal sector provides:  
✅ A) Employment to majority of migrants in low‑income jobs  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Sector is irrelevant  

Explanation: Informal sector absorbs migrant labor.

Q225. Urban planning failures include:  
✅ A) Unplanned growth, poor infrastructure, weak enforcement  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Failures are irrelevant  

Explanation: Planning often fails to anticipate growth.

Q226. Urban transport reforms include:  
✅ A) Metro rail, BRTS, electric vehicles  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Reforms are irrelevant  

Explanation: Reforms modernize urban transport.

Q227. Urban housing reforms include:  
✅ A) Affordable housing schemes, slum redevelopment  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Reforms are irrelevant  

Explanation: Housing reforms target shortages.

Q228. Urban waste management reforms include:  
✅ A) Segregation, recycling, waste‑to‑energy plants  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Reforms are irrelevant  

Explanation: Reforms improve waste disposal.

Q229. Urban water reforms include:  
✅ A) Rainwater harvesting, recycling, efficient supply  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Reforms are irrelevant  

Explanation: Reforms address scarcity.

Q230. Overall, challenges of urbanization in India reflect:  
✅ A) Rapid growth outpacing infrastructure and governance capacity  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Reflection is irrelevant  

Explanation: Urbanization creates opportunities but strains resources.

Q231. Urban reforms in India emphasize:  
✅ A) Decentralization, e‑governance, infrastructure improvement  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Reforms are irrelevant  

Explanation: Reforms modernize governance and service delivery.

Q232. The Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission (JNNURM) was launched in:  
✅ A) 2005  
B) 2010  
C) 2000  
D) 2015  

Explanation: JNNURM aimed at infrastructure and governance reforms.

Q233. Smart Cities Mission focuses on:  
✅ A) ICT, sustainability, modern infrastructure  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Mission is irrelevant  

Explanation: Smart Cities integrate technology with urban planning.

Q234. AMRUT scheme stands for:  
✅ A) Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation  
B) Agricultural Mission for Rural Transformation  
C) Subsidy Mission  
D) Name is irrelevant  

Explanation: AMRUT improves water supply and sewerage.

Q235. PMAY (Urban) aims at:  
✅ A) Housing for all by 2022  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Aim is irrelevant  

Explanation: PMAY provides affordable housing.

Q236. HRIDAY scheme focuses on:  
✅ A) Heritage City Development and Conservation  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Focus is irrelevant  

Explanation: HRIDAY preserves heritage cities.

Q237. Urban e‑governance reforms include:  
✅ A) Online services, transparency, citizen participation  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Reforms are irrelevant  

Explanation: E‑governance improves accountability.

Q238. Urban transport reforms include:  
✅ A) Metro rail, BRTS, electric vehicles  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Reforms are irrelevant  

Explanation: Transport reforms modernize mobility.

Q239. Urban housing reforms include:  
✅ A) Slum redevelopment, affordable housing schemes  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Reforms are irrelevant  

Explanation: Housing reforms target shortages.

Q240. Urban waste management reforms include:  
✅ A) Segregation, recycling, waste‑to‑energy plants  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Reforms are irrelevant  

Explanation: Reforms improve waste disposal.

Q241. Urban water reforms include:  
✅ A) Rainwater harvesting, recycling, efficient supply  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Reforms are irrelevant  

Explanation: Reforms address scarcity.

Q242. Sustainable urban development goals (SDGs) emphasize:  
✅ A) Inclusive, safe, resilient, sustainable cities  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Goals are irrelevant  

Explanation: SDG 11 focuses on sustainable cities.

Q243. International example of successful urban planning is:  
✅ A) Singapore’s integrated transport and housing policies  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Example is irrelevant  

Explanation: Singapore is a model of urban efficiency.

Q244. Curitiba (Brazil) is famous for:  
✅ A) Bus Rapid Transit System (BRTS)  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Example is irrelevant  

Explanation: Curitiba pioneered BRTS.

Q245. Tokyo’s urban planning emphasizes:  
✅ A) Disaster resilience and efficient transport  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Planning is irrelevant  

Explanation: Tokyo integrates resilience into planning.

Q246. New York City’s urban reforms emphasize:  
✅ A) Affordable housing, sustainability, public transport  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Reforms are irrelevant  

Explanation: NYC focuses on inclusive growth.

Q247. London’s urban planning emphasizes:  
✅ A) Green spaces, transport, heritage conservation  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Planning is irrelevant  

Explanation: London balances modernity and heritage.

Q248. Paris urban reforms emphasize:  
✅ A) Public transport, pedestrianization, sustainability  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Reforms are irrelevant  

Explanation: Paris promotes eco‑friendly planning.

Q249. Global urbanization trends show:  
✅ A) Over 55% of world population lives in cities  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Trends are irrelevant  

Explanation: UN reports majority urban population globally.

Q250. Overall, urban reforms and global comparisons show:  
✅ A) India must integrate sustainability, inclusivity, and innovation in urban planning  
B) Fertility rate only  
C) Subsidies only  
D) Conclusion is irrelevant  

Explanation: Lessons from global models guide India’s urban future.