Constitutional Development
This 150-question Indian Polity MCQ set on Constitutional Development offers complete coverage of historical Acts, Constituent Assembly debates, sources and features of the Constitution, landmark amendments, and contemporary issues. Readers will gain exam-ready knowledge, clarity on evolution of India’s constitutional framework, and practice material aligned with UPSC, SSC, and other competitive exams.
✅ A) Step towards parliamentary control over East India Company
B) Step towards independence
C) Constitution of India
D) None of the above
Explanation: It established parliamentary regulation of Company affairs.
Q2. The Governor of Bengal was designated as:
✅ A) Governor‑General of Bengal under Regulating Act 1773
B) Viceroy of India
C) Prime Minister
D) None of the above
Explanation: Warren Hastings became first Governor‑General of Bengal.
Q3. Pitt’s India Act of 1784 established:
✅ A) Board of Control in Britain for Company affairs
B) Supreme Court in India
C) Federal structure
D) None of the above
Explanation: Board of Control supervised political matters.
Q4. Charter Act of 1833 made:
✅ A) Governor‑General of Bengal → Governor‑General of India
B) Governor‑General of India → Viceroy
C) Prime Minister of India
D) None of the above
Explanation: Lord William Bentinck became first Governor‑General of India.
Q5. Charter Act of 1853 introduced:
✅ A) Open competition for civil services
B) Federal legislature
C) Provincial autonomy
D) None of the above
Explanation: It opened civil services to Indians.
Q6. Indian Councils Act of 1861 introduced:
✅ A) Legislative councils with Indians as members
B) Federal structure
C) Provincial autonomy
D) None of the above
Explanation: It allowed Indian representation in councils.
Q7. Indian Councils Act of 1892 provided:
✅ A) Indirect elections to legislative councils
B) Direct elections
C) Universal suffrage
D) None of the above
Explanation: It introduced limited representation.
Q8. Morley‑Minto Reforms (1909) introduced:
✅ A) Separate electorates for Muslims
B) Provincial autonomy
C) Federal structure
D) None of the above
Explanation: Separate electorates were a major feature.
Q9. Montagu‑Chelmsford Reforms (1919) introduced:
✅ A) Dyarchy in provinces
B) Federal structure
C) Separate electorates
D) None of the above
Explanation: Dyarchy divided subjects into reserved and transferred.
Q10. The 1919 Act created:
✅ A) Bicameral legislature at Centre (Council of State + Legislative Assembly)
B) Unicameral legislature
C) Federal legislature
D) None of the above
Explanation: It introduced bicameralism in India.
Q11. Simon Commission (1927) was criticized because:
✅ A) No Indian member included
B) Too many Indian members
C) Federal structure introduced
D) None of the above
Explanation: All members were British.
Q12. Nehru Report (1928) demanded:
✅ A) Dominion status for India
B) Complete independence
C) Separate electorates
D) None of the above
Explanation: It sought dominion status with fundamental rights.
Q13. Nehru Report opposed:
✅ A) Separate electorates for minorities
B) Dominion status
C) Fundamental rights
D) None of the above
Explanation: It rejected communal representation.
Q14. The 1919 Act extended franchise to:
✅ A) Limited Indians based on property, education, tax
B) Universal adult suffrage
C) Only elites
D) None of the above
Explanation: Franchise was restricted.
Q15. The 1919 Act created office of:
✅ A) High Commissioner for India in London
B) Prime Minister of India
C) President of India
D) None of the above
Explanation: High Commissioner represented India in Britain.
Q16. The 1919 Act continued until:
✅ A) Government of India Act 1935
B) Independence Act 1947
C) Regulating Act 1773
D) None of the above
Explanation: 1935 Act replaced 1919 Act.
Q17. Morley‑Minto Reforms are also called:
✅ A) Indian Councils Act 1909
B) Indian Councils Act 1892
C) Charter Act 1833
D) None of the above
Explanation: 1909 Act introduced separate electorates.
Q18. Montagu Declaration (1917) promised:
✅ A) Responsible government in India
B) Independence immediately
C) Federal structure
D) None of the above
Explanation: It promised gradual self‑government.
Q19. Dyarchy under 1919 Act divided subjects into:
✅ A) Reserved and transferred
B) Federal and provincial
C) Union and state
D) None of the above
Explanation: Reserved subjects under Governor, transferred under ministers.
Q20. Reserved subjects included:
✅ A) Law and order, finance
B) Education
C) Agriculture
D) None of the above
Explanation: Reserved subjects were under Governor’s control.
Q21. Transferred subjects included:
✅ A) Education, health, local government
B) Law and order
C) Finance
D) None of the above
Explanation: Transferred subjects were under Indian ministers.
Q22. Simon Commission recommended:
✅ A) Abolition of dyarchy, extension of provincial autonomy
B) Dominion status
C) Independence
D) None of the above
Explanation: It suggested reforms but no dominion status.
Q23. Nehru Report drafted by:
✅ A) Motilal Nehru Committee
B) Jawaharlal Nehru alone
C) Gandhi
D) None of the above
Explanation: Motilal Nehru chaired the committee.
Q24. Nehru Report proposed:
✅ A) Fundamental rights, parliamentary system, federal structure
B) Separate electorates
C) Independence immediately
D) None of the above
Explanation: It proposed rights and parliamentary democracy.
Q25. Overall, Historical Background (1773–1928) shows:
✅ A) Gradual constitutional development leading to independence
B) Immediate independence
C) Random allocation
D) None of the above
Explanation: Acts and reports laid foundation for Constitution.
Q26. The Government of India Act 1935 is considered:
✅ A) Blueprint of Indian Constitution
B) First Constitution of India
C) Independence Act
D) None of the above
Explanation: Many constitutional features were borrowed from 1935 Act.
Q27. The 1935 Act introduced:
✅ A) Provincial autonomy
B) Separate electorates
C) Independence
D) None of the above
Explanation: Provinces got autonomy with elected governments.
Q28. The 1935 Act proposed:
✅ A) Federation of India (not implemented)
B) Complete independence
C) Dominion status
D) None of the above
Explanation: Federation was conditional on princely states joining.
Q29. Dyarchy was introduced at:
✅ A) Provincial level in 1919 Act, Centre in 1935 Act
B) Centre in 1773 Act
C) Provinces in 1853 Act
D) None of the above
Explanation: 1935 Act extended dyarchy to Centre.
Q30. Bicameral legislature at Centre was provided by:
✅ A) Government of India Act 1935
B) Indian Councils Act 1919
C) Charter Act 1833
D) None of the above
Explanation: 1935 Act created Federal Assembly & Council of States.
Q31. The 1935 Act created office of:
✅ A) Federal Court (1937)
B) Supreme Court of India
C) High Commissioner
D) None of the above
Explanation: Federal Court was precursor to Supreme Court.
Q32. The 1935 Act divided subjects into:
✅ A) Federal, Provincial, Concurrent lists
B) Reserved and transferred
C) Union and State
D) None of the above
Explanation: Three‑fold division later adopted in Constitution.
Q33. The 1935 Act extended franchise to:
✅ A) About 10% of population
B) Universal adult suffrage
C) Only elites
D) None of the above
Explanation: Limited franchise based on property, education.
Q34. August Offer (1940) promised:
✅ A) Dominion status after war
B) Independence immediately
C) Federal structure
D) None of the above
Explanation: It assured expansion of Executive Council.
Q35. Cripps Mission (1942) proposed:
✅ A) Dominion status after war, provinces free to join federation
B) Immediate independence
C) Separate electorates
D) None of the above
Explanation: Cripps offered dominion status, rejected by leaders.
Q36. Quit India Movement was launched in:
✅ A) 1942 after Cripps Mission failure
B) 1930
C) 1919
D) None of the above
Explanation: Gandhi launched Quit India in August 1942.
Q37. Wavell Plan (1945) aimed at:
✅ A) Reconstituting Executive Council with Indian members
B) Independence immediately
C) Federal structure
D) None of the above
Explanation: Wavell Plan failed due to communal deadlock.
Q38. Cabinet Mission Plan (1946) proposed:
✅ A) Constituent Assembly to frame Constitution
B) Immediate independence
C) Separate electorates
D) None of the above
Explanation: It laid foundation for Constituent Assembly.
Q39. Cabinet Mission Plan suggested:
✅ A) Grouping of provinces into sections A, B, C
B) Federal structure only
C) Independence immediately
D) None of the above
Explanation: Grouping was controversial, later dropped.
Q40. Constituent Assembly was formed in:
✅ A) 1946 under Cabinet Mission Plan
B) 1935 Act
C) 1919 Act
D) None of the above
Explanation: Assembly drafted Constitution from 1946–49.
Q41. Indian Independence Act was passed in:
✅ A) July 1947 by British Parliament
B) 1935
C) 1919
D) None of the above
Explanation: Act created India and Pakistan as dominions.
Q42. Indian Independence Act came into effect on:
✅ A) 15 August 1947
B) 26 January 1950
C) 26 November 1949
D) None of the above
Explanation: India became independent on 15 August 1947.
Q43. Indian Independence Act abolished:
✅ A) Office of Secretary of State for India
B) Governor‑General
C) Federal Court
D) None of the above
Explanation: Secretary of State’s office was abolished.
Q44. Indian Independence Act transferred power to:
✅ A) Constituent Assemblies of India and Pakistan
B) British Parliament
C) Governor‑General only
D) None of the above
Explanation: Assemblies became sovereign legislatures.
Q45. Indian Independence Act declared:
✅ A) India and Pakistan as independent dominions
B) India as republic
C) India as monarchy
D) None of the above
Explanation: Dominion status until Constitution adopted.
Q46. Governor‑General after independence was:
✅ A) Lord Mountbatten (India), Muhammad Ali Jinnah (Pakistan)
B) Warren Hastings
C) Lord Wavell
D) None of the above
Explanation: Mountbatten became first Governor‑General of India.
Q47. First Indian Governor‑General was:
✅ A) C. Rajagopalachari (1948)
B) Jawaharlal Nehru
C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
D) None of the above
Explanation: Rajagopalachari succeeded Mountbatten.
Q48. Constituent Assembly adopted Constitution on:
✅ A) 26 November 1949
B) 15 August 1947
C) 26 January 1950
D) None of the above
Explanation: Constitution adopted on 26 November 1949.
Q49. Constitution came into force on:
✅ A) 26 January 1950
B) 26 November 1949
C) 15 August 1947
D) None of the above
Explanation: Republic Day marks enforcement of Constitution.
Q50. Overall, Acts from 1935–1947 show:
✅ A) Transition from colonial rule to independence and constitutional democracy
B) Immediate independence in 1935
C) Random allocation
D) None of the above
Explanation: 1935 Act, Cabinet Mission, Independence Act paved way for Constitution.
Q51. Constituent Assembly was formed under:
✅ A) Cabinet Mission Plan 1946
B) Government of India Act 1935
C) Cripps Mission 1942
D) None of the above
Explanation: Cabinet Mission Plan laid foundation for Assembly.
Q52. Total strength of Constituent Assembly was:
✅ A) 389 members (initially)
B) 299 members
C) 500 members
D) None of the above
Explanation: 389 members, later reduced to 299 after partition.
Q53. Members of Constituent Assembly were elected by:
✅ A) Provincial legislative assemblies
B) Direct elections
C) Governor‑General
D) None of the above
Explanation: Members were indirectly elected by provincial assemblies.
Q54. First meeting of Constituent Assembly was held on:
✅ A) 9 December 1946
B) 26 January 1950
C) 15 August 1947
D) None of the above
Explanation: Assembly met first on 9 December 1946.
Q55. First President of Constituent Assembly was:
✅ A) Dr. Sachidananda Sinha (temporary)
B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
C) Jawaharlal Nehru
D) None of the above
Explanation: Sinha was temporary President.
Q56. Permanent President of Constituent Assembly was:
✅ A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B) Jawaharlal Nehru
C) B.R. Ambedkar
D) None of the above
Explanation: Rajendra Prasad was elected permanent President.
Q57. Objectives Resolution was moved by:
✅ A) Jawaharlal Nehru (1947)
B) B.R. Ambedkar
C) Rajendra Prasad
D) None of the above
Explanation: Nehru moved Objectives Resolution on 13 Dec 1946.
Q58. Objectives Resolution later became:
✅ A) Preamble of Constitution
B) Fundamental Rights
C) Directive Principles
D) None of the above
Explanation: Resolution formed basis of Preamble.
Q59. Drafting Committee was chaired by:
✅ A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
B) Jawaharlal Nehru
C) Rajendra Prasad
D) None of the above
Explanation: Ambedkar was Chairman of Drafting Committee.
Q60. Drafting Committee had:
✅ A) 7 members
B) 10 members
C) 15 members
D) None of the above
Explanation: Committee had 7 members including Ambedkar.
Q61. Constituent Assembly had how many committees?
✅ A) 22 committees (major + minor)
B) 10 committees
C) 7 committees
D) None of the above
Explanation: 22 committees handled different subjects.
Q62. Union Constitution Committee was chaired by:
✅ A) Jawaharlal Nehru
B) Ambedkar
C) Rajendra Prasad
D) None of the above
Explanation: Nehru chaired Union Constitution Committee.
Q63. Union Powers Committee was chaired by:
✅ A) Jawaharlal Nehru
B) Ambedkar
C) Rajendra Prasad
D) None of the above
Explanation: Nehru chaired Union Powers Committee.
Q64. Fundamental Rights Committee was chaired by:
✅ A) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
B) Ambedkar
C) Nehru
D) None of the above
Explanation: Patel chaired Fundamental Rights Committee.
Q65. Steering Committee was chaired by:
✅ A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B) Ambedkar
C) Nehru
D) None of the above
Explanation: Rajendra Prasad chaired Steering Committee.
Q66. Constituent Assembly adopted Constitution on:
✅ A) 26 November 1949
B) 15 August 1947
C) 26 January 1950
D) None of the above
Explanation: Constitution adopted on 26 November 1949.
Q67. Constitution came into force on:
✅ A) 26 January 1950
B) 26 November 1949
C) 15 August 1947
D) None of the above
Explanation: Republic Day marks enforcement of Constitution.
Q68. Constituent Assembly took how long to frame Constitution?
✅ A) 2 years 11 months 18 days
B) 1 year
C) 5 years
D) None of the above
Explanation: Assembly worked nearly 3 years.
Q69. Total sessions of Constituent Assembly were:
✅ A) 11 sessions
B) 20 sessions
C) 5 sessions
D) None of the above
Explanation: Assembly met in 11 sessions.
Q70. Total sittings of Constituent Assembly were:
✅ A) 165 sittings
B) 200 sittings
C) 100 sittings
D) None of the above
Explanation: Assembly held 165 sittings.
Q71. Constituent Assembly debates are preserved in:
✅ A) 12 volumes of official records
B) 5 volumes
C) 20 volumes
D) None of the above
Explanation: Debates published in 12 volumes.
Q72. Constituent Assembly adopted national flag on:
✅ A) 22 July 1947
B) 26 January 1950
C) 15 August 1947
D) None of the above
Explanation: Tricolour adopted on 22 July 1947.
Q73. Constituent Assembly adopted national anthem on:
✅ A) 24 January 1950
B) 26 January 1950
C) 15 August 1947
D) None of the above
Explanation: Jana Gana Mana adopted on 24 January 1950.
Q74. Constituent Assembly adopted national song on:
✅ A) 24 January 1950 (Vande Mataram)
B) 26 January 1950
C) 15 August 1947
D) None of the above
Explanation: Vande Mataram adopted as national song.
Q75. Overall, Constituent Assembly’s work shows:
✅ A) Democratic, inclusive, and comprehensive drafting of Constitution
B) Immediate independence without debate
C) Random allocation
D) None of the above
Explanation: Assembly ensured participatory constitution‑making.
Q76. The Indian Constitution borrowed parliamentary system from:
✅ A) United Kingdom
B) USA
C) Canada
D) None of the above
Explanation: UK model inspired India’s parliamentary democracy.
Q77. Fundamental Rights were borrowed from:
✅ A) USA Constitution
B) UK Constitution
C) Canada
D) None of the above
Explanation: Bill of Rights in USA influenced Fundamental Rights.
Q78. Directive Principles of State Policy were borrowed from:
✅ A) Irish Constitution
B) USA Constitution
C) UK Constitution
D) None of the above
Explanation: Ireland’s Constitution inspired DPSPs.
Q79. Fundamental Duties were borrowed from:
✅ A) USSR Constitution
B) USA Constitution
C) UK Constitution
D) None of the above
Explanation: USSR model influenced Fundamental Duties.
Q80. Federal system with strong Centre borrowed from:
✅ A) Canada
B) USA
C) UK
D) None of the above
Explanation: Canadian model influenced Indian federalism.
Q81. Suspension of Fundamental Rights during emergency borrowed from:
✅ A) Weimar Constitution (Germany)
B) USA Constitution
C) UK Constitution
D) None of the above
Explanation: Weimar Constitution inspired emergency provisions.
Q82. Procedure for amendment borrowed from:
✅ A) South Africa
B) USA
C) UK
D) None of the above
Explanation: South Africa influenced amendment procedure.
Q83. Preamble of Indian Constitution is inspired by:
✅ A) USA Constitution
B) UK Constitution
C) Canada
D) None of the above
Explanation: USA’s Preamble inspired India’s Preamble.
Q84. Bicameral legislature borrowed from:
✅ A) UK
B) USA
C) Canada
D) None of the above
Explanation: UK Parliament inspired bicameralism.
Q85. Independence of judiciary borrowed from:
✅ A) USA
B) UK
C) Canada
D) None of the above
Explanation: USA model influenced judicial independence.
Q86. Single citizenship borrowed from:
✅ A) UK
B) USA
C) Canada
D) None of the above
Explanation: UK model inspired single citizenship.
Q87. Concurrent list borrowed from:
✅ A) Australia
B) USA
C) UK
D) None of the above
Explanation: Australian Constitution influenced concurrent list.
Q88. Residuary powers vested in Centre borrowed from:
✅ A) Canada
B) USA
C) UK
D) None of the above
Explanation: Canadian model gave residuary powers to Centre.
Q89. Impeachment of President borrowed from:
✅ A) USA
B) UK
C) Canada
D) None of the above
Explanation: USA model inspired impeachment procedure.
Q90. Removal of judges borrowed from:
✅ A) USA
B) UK
C) Canada
D) None of the above
Explanation: UK model influenced removal of judges.
Q91. Emergency provisions borrowed from:
✅ A) Germany (Weimar Constitution)
B) USA
C) UK
D) None of the above
Explanation: Weimar Constitution inspired emergency powers.
Q92. Salient feature: Indian Constitution is:
✅ A) Lengthiest written Constitution in the world
B) Shortest Constitution
C) Unwritten Constitution
D) None of the above
Explanation: It is the most detailed written Constitution.
Q93. Salient feature: Indian Constitution establishes:
✅ A) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic
B) Monarchy
C) Dictatorship
D) None of the above
Explanation: Preamble declares India as sovereign republic.
Q94. Salient feature: Indian Constitution provides:
✅ A) Fundamental Rights to citizens
B) No rights
C) Only duties
D) None of the above
Explanation: Rights safeguard liberty and equality.
Q95. Salient feature: Directive Principles aim at:
✅ A) Social and economic democracy
B) Political democracy only
C) No democracy
D) None of the above
Explanation: DPSPs guide state policy for welfare.
Q96. Salient feature: Fundamental Duties aim at:
✅ A) Promoting civic responsibility
B) Restricting rights
C) Random allocation
D) None of the above
Explanation: Duties encourage responsible citizenship.
Q97. Salient feature: Constitution establishes:
✅ A) Federal system with unitary bias
B) Pure federal system
C) Pure unitary system
D) None of the above
Explanation: Centre stronger than states.
Q98. Salient feature: Constitution provides:
✅ A) Independent judiciary with judicial review
B) Dependent judiciary
C) No review
D) None of the above
Explanation: Judiciary ensures constitutional supremacy.
Q99. Salient feature: Constitution provides:
✅ A) Universal adult suffrage (one person, one vote)
B) Limited franchise
C) Property‑based franchise
D) None of the above
Explanation: Universal suffrage ensures democracy.
Q100. Overall, Sources & Features show:
✅ A) Blend of global models with Indian needs
B) Copy of UK Constitution only
C) Random allocation
D) None of the above
Explanation: Indian Constitution is a unique synthesis.
Q101. The First Constitutional Amendment (1951) introduced:
✅ A) Restrictions on Fundamental Rights, Ninth Schedule
B) Fundamental Duties
C) Panchayati Raj
D) None of the above
Explanation: It curtailed rights to protect land reforms.
Q102. The Seventh Amendment (1956) dealt with:
✅ A) Reorganization of states on linguistic basis
B) Fundamental Duties
C) Emergency provisions
D) None of the above
Explanation: It reorganized states and adjusted High Courts.
Q103. The 42nd Amendment (1976) is called:
✅ A) Mini Constitution
B) First Amendment
C) Emergency Amendment
D) None of the above
Explanation: It made sweeping changes, including Preamble words.
Q104. The 42nd Amendment added words to Preamble:
✅ A) Socialist, Secular, Integrity
B) Sovereign, Democratic, Republic
C) Justice, Liberty, Equality
D) None of the above
Explanation: These words strengthened ideology.
Q105. The 42nd Amendment curtailed:
✅ A) Judicial review powers
B) Fundamental Rights
C) Directive Principles
D) None of the above
Explanation: It reduced judiciary’s authority.
Q106. The 44th Amendment (1978) restored:
✅ A) Judicial review and Fundamental Rights
B) Emergency powers
C) Ninth Schedule
D) None of the above
Explanation: It reversed many 42nd Amendment provisions.
Q107. The 44th Amendment made right to property:
✅ A) Legal right, not Fundamental Right
B) Fundamental Right
C) Directive Principle
D) None of the above
Explanation: Property became legal right under Article 300A.
Q108. The 61st Amendment (1989) lowered voting age to:
✅ A) 18 years
B) 21 years
C) 16 years
D) None of the above
Explanation: Voting age reduced to 18 years.
Q109. The 73rd Amendment (1992) introduced:
✅ A) Panchayati Raj institutions
B) Fundamental Duties
C) GST
D) None of the above
Explanation: It gave constitutional status to Panchayats.
Q110. The 74th Amendment (1992) introduced:
✅ A) Urban local bodies (Municipalities)
B) Panchayati Raj
C) Fundamental Duties
D) None of the above
Explanation: It empowered municipalities.
Q111. The 86th Amendment (2002) made:
✅ A) Right to Education a Fundamental Right (Art. 21A)
B) Right to Property Fundamental Right
C) GST
D) None of the above
Explanation: Education became Fundamental Right for children 6–14.
Q112. The 101st Amendment (2016) introduced:
✅ A) Goods and Services Tax (GST)
B) Panchayati Raj
C) Fundamental Duties
D) None of the above
Explanation: GST unified indirect taxation.
Q113. The 102nd Amendment (2018) gave constitutional status to:
✅ A) National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC)
B) Election Commission
C) Finance Commission
D) None of the above
Explanation: NCBC became constitutional body.
Q114. The 103rd Amendment (2019) introduced:
✅ A) 10% reservation for EWS in education and jobs
B) GST
C) Panchayati Raj
D) None of the above
Explanation: It provided reservation for economically weaker sections.
Q115. The 104th Amendment (2020) abolished:
✅ A) Anglo‑Indian reserved seats in Lok Sabha and State Assemblies
B) GST
C) Panchayati Raj
D) None of the above
Explanation: Anglo‑Indian representation was removed.
Q116. The 105th Amendment (2021) restored:
✅ A) States’ power to identify OBCs
B) GST Council powers
C) Panchayati Raj
D) None of the above
Explanation: It empowered states to list OBCs.
Q117. The Ninth Schedule was created by:
✅ A) First Amendment (1951)
B) 42nd Amendment
C) 44th Amendment
D) None of the above
Explanation: Ninth Schedule protected land reform laws.
Q118. The Ninth Schedule was later subject to:
✅ A) Judicial review (Kesavananda Bharati, I.R. Coelho cases)
B) No review
C) Random allocation
D) None of the above
Explanation: Supreme Court allowed review of Ninth Schedule laws.
Q119. The Basic Structure Doctrine was laid down in:
✅ A) Kesavananda Bharati case (1973)
B) Golaknath case (1967)
C) Indira Gandhi case (1975)
D) None of the above
Explanation: Court held Constitution’s basic structure cannot be altered.
Q120. Golaknath case (1967) held that:
✅ A) Parliament cannot amend Fundamental Rights
B) Parliament can amend any part
C) Judiciary has no power
D) None of the above
Explanation: It restricted Parliament’s amending power.
Q121. Indira Gandhi vs Raj Narain case (1975) led to:
✅ A) Striking down 39th Amendment provisions
B) Strengthening PM’s powers
C) Abolition of judiciary
D) None of the above
Explanation: Court upheld judicial review.
Q122. Minerva Mills case (1980) held that:
✅ A) Balance between Fundamental Rights and DPSPs is part of basic structure
B) Parliament has unlimited power
C) Judiciary has no power
D) None of the above
Explanation: It reinforced basic structure doctrine.
Q123. S.R. Bommai case (1994) held that:
✅ A) Secularism is part of basic structure
B) Parliament has unlimited power
C) Judiciary has no power
D) None of the above
Explanation: Court upheld secularism as basic structure.
Q124. Recent amendments show:
✅ A) Constitution evolves with socio‑economic needs
B) Constitution is rigid
C) No changes allowed
D) None of the above
Explanation: Amendments adapt Constitution to changing times.
Q125. Overall, Amendments & Evolution show:
✅ A) Constitution is flexible yet preserves basic structure
B) Constitution is rigid and unchangeable
C) Random allocation
D) None of the above
Explanation: Amendments allow change while protecting core values.
Q126. The Basic Structure Doctrine ensures:
✅ A) Parliament cannot alter core principles of Constitution
B) Parliament has unlimited power
C) Judiciary has no role
D) None of the above
Explanation: Doctrine preserves democracy, secularism, rule of law.
Q127. Judicial review in India means:
✅ A) Courts can examine constitutionality of laws
B) Courts can make laws
C) Courts can amend Constitution
D) None of the above
Explanation: Judicial review ensures supremacy of Constitution.
Q128. Secularism in Indian Constitution means:
✅ A) Equal respect for all religions
B) State religion declared
C) No religion allowed
D) None of the above
Explanation: India follows positive secularism.
Q129. Cooperative federalism refers to:
✅ A) Centre and States working together
B) Centre dominating States
C) States dominating Centre
D) None of the above
Explanation: Cooperative federalism promotes harmony.
Q130. Competitive federalism refers to:
✅ A) States competing for investment and development
B) Centre dominating States
C) States dominating Centre
D) None of the above
Explanation: Competition improves governance.
Q131. One Nation One Election debate concerns:
✅ A) Simultaneous elections for Lok Sabha and State Assemblies
B) Only Lok Sabha elections
C) Only Panchayat elections
D) None of the above
Explanation: Proposal aims at efficiency and cost reduction.
Q132. Uniform Civil Code is mentioned in:
✅ A) Directive Principles (Article 44)
B) Fundamental Rights
C) Fundamental Duties
D) None of the above
Explanation: UCC is a directive principle.
Q133. Right to Privacy was declared Fundamental Right in:
✅ A) Puttaswamy case (2017)
B) Kesavananda Bharati case
C) Golaknath case
D) None of the above
Explanation: Supreme Court upheld privacy under Article 21.
Q134. Right to Education became Fundamental Right by:
✅ A) 86th Amendment (2002)
B) 42nd Amendment
C) 44th Amendment
D) None of the above
Explanation: Article 21A guarantees free education for 6–14 years.
Q135. Right to Information Act was passed in:
✅ A) 2005
B) 2002
C) 1991
D) None of the above
Explanation: RTI Act promotes transparency.
Q136. National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) was struck down in:
✅ A) 2015 by Supreme Court
B) 2002
C) 1991
D) None of the above
Explanation: Court upheld independence of judiciary.
Q137. GST reform was introduced by:
✅ A) 101st Amendment (2016)
B) 73rd Amendment
C) 86th Amendment
D) None of the above
Explanation: GST unified indirect taxes.
Q138. Abrogation of Article 370 happened in:
✅ A) 2019
B) 2002
C) 1991
D) None of the above
Explanation: Special status of J&K removed in 2019.
Q139. Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA) was passed in:
✅ A) 2019
B) 2016
C) 2002
D) None of the above
Explanation: CAA amended citizenship provisions.
Q140. Electoral bonds scheme was introduced in:
✅ A) 2017
B) 2005
C) 1991
D) None of the above
Explanation: Electoral bonds aimed at transparent political funding.
Q141. Right to Vote in India is:
✅ A) Legal right under Representation of People Act
B) Fundamental Right
C) Directive Principle
D) None of the above
Explanation: Voting is a statutory/legal right.
Q142. Anti‑defection law was introduced by:
✅ A) 52nd Amendment (1985)
B) 42nd Amendment
C) 44th Amendment
D) None of the above
Explanation: It prevents political defections.
Q143. 91st Amendment (2003) limited:
✅ A) Size of Council of Ministers to 15% of legislature strength
B) Voting age
C) Fundamental Duties
D) None of the above
Explanation: It restricted size of ministries.
Q144. Right to Information is linked to:
✅ A) Article 19(1)(a) — Freedom of Speech
B) Article 21
C) Article 32
D) None of the above
Explanation: RTI flows from freedom of speech.
Q145. Judicial activism refers to:
✅ A) Judiciary taking proactive role in governance
B) Judiciary making laws
C) Judiciary ignoring Constitution
D) None of the above
Explanation: Activism expands scope of rights.
Q146. Public Interest Litigation (PIL) was introduced by:
✅ A) Judiciary in 1980s
B) Parliament in 1970s
C) Constitution in 1950
D) None of the above
Explanation: PIL allows access to justice for all.
Q147. Right to Information Act empowers:
✅ A) Citizens to access government records
B) Judiciary only
C) Parliament only
D) None of the above
Explanation: RTI promotes transparency and accountability.
Q148. Contemporary constitutional debates include:
✅ A) UCC, One Nation One Election, Electoral reforms
B) Only GST
C) Only Panchayati Raj
D) None of the above
Explanation: Debates reflect evolving polity.
Q149. Constitutional morality means:
✅ A) Adherence to values and spirit of Constitution
B) Blind obedience to majority
C) Ignoring Constitution
D) None of the above
Explanation: It ensures rule of law and justice.
Q150. Overall, Contemporary Issues show:
✅ A) Constitution is living document adapting to new challenges
B) Constitution is rigid and outdated
C) Random allocation
D) None of the above
Explanation: Constitution evolves with society and governance.
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