Fundamental Rights in India
This resource presents 200 multiple-choice questions on Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution. Covering Articles 12–35, doctrines, restrictions, landmark case laws, and comparative insights, each question includes correct answers and explanations. Structured in modular blocks, this set ensures complete exam-oriented coverage for UPSC, SSC, State PSC, CLAT, and law exams, making it a reliable tool for quick learning, revision, and success.
✅ A) Part III
B) Part II
C) Part IV
D) Part V
Explanation: Fundamental Rights are in Part III (Articles 12–35).
Q2. Fundamental Rights are borrowed from the Constitution of:
✅ A) USA
B) UK
C) Canada
D) Ireland
Explanation: Inspired by the Bill of Rights in the USA.
Q3. Fundamental Rights are enforceable by:
✅ A) Courts
B) Parliament
C) President
D) Governors
Explanation: Enforceable by courts under Article 32.
Q4. Fundamental Rights are available to:
✅ A) Citizens, and in some cases non‑citizens
B) Only citizens
C) Only foreigners
D) Only refugees
Explanation: Some rights apply to all persons (e.g., Article 14).
Q5. Fundamental Rights are classified into:
✅ A) Six categories
B) Seven categories
C) Five categories
D) Eight categories
Explanation: Six categories after the 44th Amendment.
Q6. Fundamental Rights are not absolute because:
✅ A) They are subject to reasonable restrictions
B) They are unlimited
C) They are absolute
D) They are permanent
Explanation: Rights subject to restrictions.
Q7. Article 12 defines:
✅ A) State
B) Citizenship
C) Equality
D) Freedom
Explanation: Article 12 defines “State” for Part III.
Q8. The term “State” under Article 12 includes:
✅ A) Government, Parliament, Legislature, local authorities, etc.
B) Only Union Government
C) Only State Governments
D) Only Judiciary
Explanation: Includes Union, States, local authorities, etc.
Q9. Judiciary is included in “State” under Article 12 when:
✅ A) Performing non‑judicial functions
B) Delivering judgments
C) Exercising writ jurisdiction
D) Reviewing laws
Explanation: Included when performing non‑judicial functions.
Q10. Article 13 deals with:
✅ A) Laws inconsistent with Fundamental Rights
B) Citizenship
C) Directive Principles
D) Union‑State relations
Explanation: Article 13 invalidates laws violating FRs.
Q11. Article 13 declares:
✅ A) Pre‑constitutional and post‑constitutional laws void if inconsistent with FRs
B) All laws valid
C) Only post‑constitutional laws void
D) Only pre‑constitutional laws void
Explanation: Both types void if inconsistent.
Q12. Doctrine of severability is related to:
✅ A) Article 13
B) Article 14
C) Article 19
D) Article 32
Explanation: Severability doctrine under Article 13.
Q13. Doctrine of eclipse is related to:
✅ A) Article 13
B) Article 14
C) Article 19
D) Article 32
Explanation: Eclipse doctrine under Article 13.
Q14. Article 14 guarantees:
✅ A) Equality before law and equal protection of laws
B) Freedom of speech
C) Freedom of religion
D) Right to education
Explanation: Article 14 guarantees equality.
Q15. Equality before law is:
✅ A) Negative concept (no special privileges)
B) Positive concept
C) Directive principle
D) Fundamental duty
Explanation: Equality before law is negative concept.
Q16. Equal protection of laws is:
✅ A) Positive concept (equal treatment in similar circumstances)
B) Negative concept
C) Directive principle
D) Fundamental duty
Explanation: Equal protection is positive concept.
Q17. Equality before law is borrowed from:
✅ A) UK
B) USA
C) Canada
D) Ireland
Explanation: Borrowed from UK.
Q18. Equal protection of laws is borrowed from:
✅ A) USA
B) UK
C) Canada
D) Ireland
Explanation: Borrowed from USA.
Q19. Article 14 applies to:
✅ A) All persons (citizens and non‑citizens)
B) Only citizens
C) Only foreigners
D) Only refugees
Explanation: Applies to all persons.
Q20. Article 14 prohibits:
✅ A) Arbitrary classification
B) Reasonable classification
C) Positive discrimination
D) Affirmative action
Explanation: Prohibits arbitrary classification.
Q21. Reasonable classification under Article 14 must satisfy:
✅ A) Intelligible differentia and rational nexus
B) Arbitrary distinction
C) Political decision
D) Religious distinction
Explanation: Two tests: intelligible differentia + rational nexus.
Q22. Article 14 does not prohibit:
✅ A) Reasonable classification
B) Arbitrary classification
C) Discrimination without basis
D) Unequal treatment
Explanation: Allows reasonable classification.
Q23. Article 14 ensures:
✅ A) Rule of law
B) Arbitrary rule
C) Dictatorship
D) Monarchy
Explanation: Ensures rule of law.
Q24. Rule of law means:
✅ A) No one above law, equality before law
B) King above law
C) Parliament above law
D) President above law
Explanation: Rule of law ensures equality.
Q25. Article 14 is considered:
✅ A) Cornerstone of equality jurisprudence
B) Directive principle
C) Fundamental duty
D) Non‑justiciable right
Explanation: Article 14 is cornerstone of equality.
Q26. Article 15 prohibits discrimination on grounds of:
✅ A) Religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth
B) Language only
C) Wealth only
D) Political opinion
Explanation: Article 15 prohibits discrimination on listed grounds.
Q27. Article 15(3) allows:
✅ A) Special provisions for women and children
B) Special provisions for foreigners
C) Special provisions for refugees
D) Special provisions for diplomats
Explanation: Protective discrimination for women/children.
Q28. Article 15(4) allows:
✅ A) Special provisions for socially and educationally backward classes, SCs, STs
B) Special provisions for foreigners
C) Special provisions for refugees
D) Special provisions for diplomats
Explanation: Added by First Amendment (1951).
Q29. Article 15(5) allows:
✅ A) Reservation in private educational institutions (except minority institutions)
B) Reservation in government jobs only
C) Reservation in Parliament only
D) Reservation in judiciary
Explanation: Inserted by 93rd Amendment (2005).
Q30. Article 15(6) allows:
✅ A) Reservation for economically weaker sections (EWS)
B) Reservation for foreigners
C) Reservation for refugees
D) Reservation for diplomats
Explanation: Inserted by 103rd Amendment (2019).
Q31. Article 16 guarantees:
✅ A) Equality of opportunity in public employment
B) Equality in private employment
C) Equality in judiciary
D) Equality in Parliament
Explanation: Article 16 ensures equality in public employment.
Q32. Article 16(3) allows Parliament to prescribe:
✅ A) Residence requirements for public employment
B) Religion requirements
C) Caste requirements
D) Wealth requirements
Explanation: Parliament can prescribe residence requirements.
Q33. Article 16(4) allows:
✅ A) Reservation for backward classes in public employment
B) Reservation for foreigners
C) Reservation for refugees
D) Reservation for diplomats
Explanation: Reservation for backward classes.
Q34. Article 16(4A) allows:
✅ A) Reservation in promotion for SCs/STs
B) Reservation in admission only
C) Reservation in Parliament only
D) Reservation in judiciary
Explanation: Inserted by 77th Amendment (1995).
Q35. Article 16(4B) allows:
✅ A) Carry forward of unfilled reserved vacancies
B) Reservation in Parliament only
C) Reservation in judiciary only
D) Reservation in private sector
Explanation: Inserted by 81st Amendment (2000).
Q36. Article 16(6) allows:
✅ A) Reservation for economically weaker sections (EWS) in public employment
B) Reservation for foreigners
C) Reservation for refugees
D) Reservation for diplomats
Explanation: Inserted by 103rd Amendment (2019).
Q37. Article 17 abolishes:
✅ A) Untouchability
B) Titles
C) Discrimination
D) Slavery
Explanation: Article 17 abolishes untouchability.
Q38. Violation of Article 17 is:
✅ A) Punishable under law
B) Not punishable
C) Directive principle only
D) Fundamental duty
Explanation: Punishable under Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955.
Q39. Article 18 abolishes:
✅ A) Titles (except military/academic distinctions)
B) Untouchability
C) Discrimination
D) Slavery
Explanation: Article 18 abolishes titles.
Q40. Article 18 prohibits:
✅ A) State from conferring titles (except military/academic)
B) Citizens from accepting foreign titles without consent
C) Both A and B
D) None
Explanation: Article 18 prohibits both.
Q41. Bharat Ratna and Padma awards are:
✅ A) Not titles under Article 18
B) Titles under Article 18
C) Foreign titles
D) Judicial titles
Explanation: They are not titles, but national awards.
Q42. Article 15 applies to:
✅ A) Citizens only
B) All persons
C) Foreigners only
D) Refugees only
Explanation: Article 15 applies only to citizens.
Q43. Article 16 applies to:
✅ A) Citizens only
B) All persons
C) Foreigners only
D) Refugees only
Explanation: Article 16 applies only to citizens.
Q44. Article 17 applies to:
✅ A) All persons (citizens and non‑citizens)
B) Citizens only
C) Foreigners only
D) Refugees only
Explanation: Abolition of untouchability applies universally.
Q45. Article 18 applies to:
✅ A) Citizens only
B) All persons
C) Foreigners only
D) Refugees only
Explanation: Abolition of titles applies to citizens.
Q46. Reservation for EWS was introduced by:
✅ A) 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019
B) 93rd Amendment Act, 2005
C) 77th Amendment Act, 1995
D) 81st Amendment Act, 2000
Explanation: 103rd Amendment introduced EWS reservation.
Q47. Reservation in private educational institutions was introduced by:
✅ A) 93rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2005
B) 77th Amendment Act, 1995
C) 81st Amendment Act, 2000
D) 103rd Amendment Act, 2019
Explanation: 93rd Amendment introduced private institution reservation.
Q48. Reservation in promotion for SCs/STs was introduced by:
✅ A) 77th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1995
B) 93rd Amendment Act, 2005
C) 81st Amendment Act, 2000
D) 103rd Amendment Act, 2019
Explanation: 77th Amendment introduced promotion reservation.
Q49. Carry forward of unfilled reserved vacancies was introduced by:
✅ A) 81st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2000
B) 77th Amendment Act, 1995
C) 93rd Amendment Act, 2005
D) 103rd Amendment Act, 2019
Explanation: 81st Amendment introduced carry forward.
Q50. Abolition of untouchability under Article 17 is enforced by:
✅ A) Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955
B) Citizenship Act, 1955
C) Representation of People Act, 1950
D) Indian Penal Code
Explanation: Enforced by Protection of Civil Rights Act.
Q51. Article 19 guarantees:
✅ A) Six freedoms to citizens
B) Seven freedoms to all persons
C) Five freedoms to foreigners
D) Unlimited freedoms
Explanation: Article 19 guarantees six freedoms to citizens.
Q52. The six freedoms under Article 19 are:
✅ A) Speech & expression, assembly, association, movement, residence, profession
B) Religion, equality, education, property, vote, marriage
C) Speech, religion, equality, property, vote, marriage
D) None
Explanation: Six freedoms listed in Article 19(1).
Q53. Freedom of speech and expression includes:
✅ A) Right to silence, right to publish, right to communicate
B) Right to defame
C) Right to incite violence
D) Right to spread hate
Explanation: Includes legitimate expressions, not defamation/incitement.
Q54. Freedom of assembly under Article 19 allows:
✅ A) Peaceful assembly without arms
B) Armed assembly
C) Violent assembly
D) Assembly without restrictions
Explanation: Peaceful assembly without arms.
Q55. Freedom of association includes:
✅ A) Right to form unions, societies, political parties
B) Right to form armed groups
C) Right to form terrorist groups
D) Right to form illegal associations
Explanation: Includes lawful associations.
Q56. Freedom of movement allows:
✅ A) Free movement throughout India
B) Free movement abroad
C) Free movement without restrictions
D) Free movement in armed zones
Explanation: Free movement throughout India.
Q57. Freedom of residence allows:
✅ A) Reside anywhere in India
B) Reside abroad freely
C) Reside without restrictions
D) Reside in armed zones
Explanation: Reside anywhere in India.
Q58. Freedom of profession allows:
✅ A) Practice any profession, trade, business
B) Practice illegal trade
C) Practice armed rebellion
D) Practice without restrictions
Explanation: Any lawful profession.
Q59. Article 19 freedoms are available to:
✅ A) Citizens only
B) All persons
C) Foreigners only
D) Refugees only
Explanation: Available to citizens only.
Q60. Article 20 provides protection in:
✅ A) Criminal cases
B) Civil cases
C) Property cases
D) Taxation cases
Explanation: Article 20 provides protection in criminal cases.
Q61. Article 20(1) prohibits:
✅ A) Ex‑post facto laws
B) Prospective laws
C) Civil laws
D) Tax laws
Explanation: Prohibits retrospective criminal laws.
Q62. Article 20(2) prohibits:
✅ A) Double jeopardy
B) Single trial
C) Civil suits
D) Tax suits
Explanation: Prohibits double jeopardy.
Q63. Article 20(3) prohibits:
✅ A) Self‑incrimination
B) Silence
C) Freedom of speech
D) Freedom of religion
Explanation: Prohibits self‑incrimination.
Q64. Article 21 guarantees:
✅ A) Protection of life and personal liberty
B) Freedom of speech
C) Freedom of religion
D) Right to property
Explanation: Article 21 guarantees life and liberty.
Q65. Article 21A guarantees:
✅ A) Right to education (6–14 years)
B) Right to property
C) Right to vote
D) Right to marriage
Explanation: Article 21A guarantees education.
Q66. Right to education was inserted by:
✅ A) 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002
B) 44th Amendment Act, 1978
C) 93rd Amendment Act, 2005
D) 103rd Amendment Act, 2019
Explanation: Inserted by 86th Amendment.
Q67. Article 22 deals with:
✅ A) Protection in cases of arrest and detention
B) Freedom of speech
C) Freedom of religion
D) Right to property
Explanation: Article 22 deals with arrest/detention.
Q68. Article 22(1) provides:
✅ A) Right to be informed of grounds of arrest
B) Right to property
C) Right to vote
D) Right to education
Explanation: Right to be informed of arrest grounds.
Q69. Article 22(2) provides:
✅ A) Right to be produced before magistrate within 24 hours
B) Right to property
C) Right to vote
D) Right to education
Explanation: Must be produced within 24 hours.
Q70. Article 22(3) excludes:
✅ A) Enemy aliens and preventive detention cases
B) Citizens only
C) Foreigners only
D) Refugees only
Explanation: Excludes enemy aliens and preventive detention.
Q71. Preventive detention means:
✅ A) Detention to prevent future offense
B) Detention after offense committed
C) Detention for property disputes
D) Detention for tax disputes
Explanation: Preventive detention prevents future offense.
Q72. Preventive detention maximum period without advisory board approval:
✅ A) 3 months
B) 6 months
C) 9 months
D) 12 months
Explanation: Maximum 3 months.
Q73. Advisory Board for preventive detention consists of:
✅ A) Judges of High Court
B) Judges of Supreme Court
C) Members of Parliament
D) Members of State Legislature
Explanation: Advisory Board = High Court judges.
Q74. Parliament can extend preventive detention beyond 3 months by:
✅ A) Law approved by Advisory Board
B) Law approved by Supreme Court
C) Law approved by President
D) Law approved by Governor
Explanation: Parliament can extend with Advisory Board approval.
Q75. Maximum period of preventive detention under law:
✅ A) 12 months (unless Parliament prescribes otherwise)
B) 6 months
C) 9 months
D) 24 months
Explanation: Maximum 12 months unless Parliament prescribes longer.
Q76. Article 23 prohibits:
✅ A) Human trafficking and forced labour
B) Untouchability
C) Titles
D) Property disputes
Explanation: Article 23 prohibits trafficking and forced labour.
Q77. Article 23 applies to:
✅ A) Citizens and non‑citizens (all persons)
B) Citizens only
C) Foreigners only
D) Refugees only
Explanation: Applies universally.
Q78. Violation of Article 23 is punishable under:
✅ A) Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act, 1976
B) Citizenship Act, 1955
C) Representation of People Act, 1950
D) Indian Penal Code
Explanation: Punishable under Bonded Labour Abolition Act.
Q79. Article 24 prohibits:
✅ A) Employment of children below 14 years in hazardous industries
B) Employment of children below 18 years in all jobs
C) Employment of children below 10 years in agriculture
D) Employment of children below 12 years in schools
Explanation: Article 24 prohibits child labour in hazardous industries.
Q80. Article 24 applies to:
✅ A) Citizens and non‑citizens (all persons)
B) Citizens only
C) Foreigners only
D) Refugees only
Explanation: Applies universally.
Q81. Article 25 guarantees:
✅ A) Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice, propagation of religion
B) Freedom of speech
C) Freedom of property
D) Freedom of education
Explanation: Article 25 guarantees religious freedom.
Q82. Article 25 applies to:
✅ A) All persons (citizens and non‑citizens)
B) Citizens only
C) Foreigners only
D) Refugees only
Explanation: Applies universally.
Q83. Article 25 is subject to:
✅ A) Public order, morality, health, and other Fundamental Rights
B) Unlimited freedom
C) No restrictions
D) Directive principles only
Explanation: Subject to restrictions.
Q84. Article 26 guarantees:
✅ A) Freedom to manage religious affairs
B) Freedom of speech
C) Freedom of property
D) Freedom of education
Explanation: Article 26 guarantees religious affairs freedom.
Q85. Article 26 applies to:
✅ A) Religious denominations
B) All persons
C) Citizens only
D) Foreigners only
Explanation: Applies to religious denominations.
Q86. Article 27 prohibits:
✅ A) Compulsory taxation for promotion of religion
B) Taxation for education
C) Taxation for property
D) Taxation for speech
Explanation: Article 27 prohibits religious taxation.
Q87. Article 28 prohibits:
✅ A) Religious instruction in institutions wholly funded by State
B) Religious instruction in private institutions
C) Religious instruction in minority institutions
D) Religious instruction in unaided institutions
Explanation: Prohibits in State‑funded institutions.
Q88. Article 28 allows religious instruction in:
✅ A) Institutions administered by State but established under endowment/trust
B) All State institutions
C) All private institutions
D) All minority institutions
Explanation: Allowed in endowment/trust institutions.
Q89. Article 25 guarantees right to propagate religion, meaning:
✅ A) Right to spread one’s religion peacefully
B) Right to convert forcibly
C) Right to incite violence
D) Right to defame other religions
Explanation: Propagation means peaceful spread.
Q90. Article 25 does not guarantee:
✅ A) Right to convert others forcibly
B) Right to spread peacefully
C) Right to practice religion
D) Right to conscience
Explanation: Forcible conversion not guaranteed.
Q91. Article 26 allows religious denominations to:
✅ A) Establish and maintain institutions, manage property, administer affairs
B) Establish political parties
C) Establish armed groups
D) Establish trade unions
Explanation: Religious denominations can manage institutions.
Q92. Article 27 ensures:
✅ A) Secular character of State
B) Religious taxation
C) Religious discrimination
D) Religious propagation
Explanation: Ensures secularism.
Q93. Article 28 ensures:
✅ A) Secular education in State institutions
B) Religious education in all institutions
C) Religious taxation
D) Religious propagation
Explanation: Ensures secular education.
Q94. Freedom of religion under Articles 25–28 applies to:
✅ A) All persons (citizens and non‑citizens)
B) Citizens only
C) Foreigners only
D) Refugees only
Explanation: Applies universally.
Q95. Article 25 protects:
✅ A) Essential religious practices
B) All practices without restriction
C) Political practices
D) Economic practices
Explanation: Protects essential religious practices.
Q96. Essential religious practices doctrine was evolved by:
✅ A) Supreme Court
B) Parliament
C) President
D) Governors
Explanation: Doctrine evolved by Supreme Court.
Q97. Article 26 protects:
✅ A) Collective rights of religious denominations
B) Individual rights only
C) Political rights
D) Economic rights
Explanation: Protects collective rights.
Q98. Article 27 ensures:
✅ A) No taxpayer money used for promotion of religion
B) Taxpayer money used for religion
C) Taxpayer money used for politics
D) Taxpayer money used for education
Explanation: Ensures secular use of taxes.
Q99. Article 28 prohibits:
✅ A) Religious instruction in State‑funded institutions
B) Religious instruction in private institutions
C) Religious instruction in minority institutions
D) Religious instruction in unaided institutions
Explanation: Prohibits in State‑funded institutions.
Q100. Freedom of religion provisions (Articles 25–28) reflect:
✅ A) Secular character of Indian Constitution
B) Religious State
C) Theocratic State
D) Monarchy
Explanation: Reflect secularism.
Q101. Article 29 protects:
✅ A) Interests of minorities to conserve language, script, culture
B) Interests of majority only
C) Interests of foreigners
D) Interests of refugees
Explanation: Article 29 protects minority culture.
Q102. Article 29(2) prohibits:
✅ A) Denial of admission into educational institutions on grounds of religion, race, caste, language
B) Denial of admission on merit
C) Denial of admission on wealth
D) Denial of admission on nationality
Explanation: Prohibits discrimination in admission.
Q103. Article 30 grants minorities:
✅ A) Right to establish and administer educational institutions
B) Right to establish political parties
C) Right to establish armed groups
D) Right to establish trade unions
Explanation: Article 30 grants minority educational rights.
Q104. Article 30(1) applies to:
✅ A) Religious and linguistic minorities
B) Political minorities
C) Economic minorities
D) Foreigners
Explanation: Applies to religious and linguistic minorities.
Q105. Article 30(2) prohibits:
✅ A) Discrimination in granting aid to minority institutions
B) Discrimination in granting aid to majority institutions
C) Discrimination in granting aid to foreigners
D) Discrimination in granting aid to refugees
Explanation: Prohibits discrimination in aid.
Q106. Article 29 applies to:
✅ A) Citizens only
B) All persons
C) Foreigners only
D) Refugees only
Explanation: Applies to citizens only.
Q107. Article 30 applies to:
✅ A) Citizens only
B) All persons
C) Foreigners only
D) Refugees only
Explanation: Applies to citizens only.
Q108. Cultural and educational rights reflect:
✅ A) Protection of minority identity
B) Protection of majority only
C) Protection of foreigners
D) Protection of refugees
Explanation: Protect minority identity.
Q109. Article 32 guarantees:
✅ A) Right to constitutional remedies
B) Right to property
C) Right to vote
D) Right to marriage
Explanation: Article 32 guarantees remedies.
Q110. Article 32 is called:
✅ A) Heart and soul of the Constitution
B) Directive principle
C) Fundamental duty
D) Non‑justiciable right
Explanation: Called heart and soul by Dr. Ambedkar.
Q111. Article 32 empowers:
✅ A) Supreme Court to issue writs
B) High Courts only
C) Parliament only
D) President only
Explanation: Supreme Court empowered.
Q112. Writ jurisdiction under Article 32 is:
✅ A) Original jurisdiction of Supreme Court
B) Appellate jurisdiction
C) Advisory jurisdiction
D) Concurrent jurisdiction
Explanation: Supreme Court has original jurisdiction.
Q113. Writs available under Article 32 are:
✅ A) Habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari, quo warranto
B) Only habeas corpus
C) Only mandamus
D) Only certiorari
Explanation: Five writs available.
Q114. Habeas corpus means:
✅ A) Produce the body — release from unlawful detention
B) Command to act
C) Command to stop
D) Command to certify
Explanation: Habeas corpus = release from unlawful detention.
Q115. Mandamus means:
✅ A) Command to perform duty
B) Command to stop
C) Command to certify
D) Command to release
Explanation: Mandamus = command to perform duty.
Q116. Prohibition means:
✅ A) Command to lower court to stop proceedings
B) Command to perform duty
C) Command to certify
D) Command to release
Explanation: Prohibition = stop proceedings.
Q117. Certiorari means:
✅ A) Command to transfer case to higher court for review
B) Command to perform duty
C) Command to stop
D) Command to release
Explanation: Certiorari = transfer/review.
Q118. Quo warranto means:
✅ A) By what authority — questioning legality of office held
B) Command to perform duty
C) Command to stop
D) Command to release
Explanation: Quo warranto = questioning authority.
Q119. Article 32 applies to:
✅ A) Citizens and non‑citizens (all persons)
B) Citizens only
C) Foreigners only
D) Refugees only
Explanation: Applies universally.
Q120. Article 32 empowers citizens to:
✅ A) Approach Supreme Court directly for enforcement of Fundamental Rights
B) Approach High Court only
C) Approach Parliament only
D) Approach President only
Explanation: Direct approach to Supreme Court.
Q121. Article 32 is enforceable against:
✅ A) State actions violating Fundamental Rights
B) Private actions only
C) Foreigners only
D) Refugees only
Explanation: Enforceable against State.
Q122. Article 32 is suspended during:
✅ A) Emergency under Article 359
B) Normal times
C) Elections
D) President’s rule
Explanation: Suspended during emergency.
Q123. Article 32 is not suspended for:
✅ A) Articles 20 and 21
B) Articles 14 and 15
C) Articles 19 and 22
D) Articles 29 and 30
Explanation: 44th Amendment protects Articles 20 & 21.
Q124. Article 32 is considered:
✅ A) Fundamental Right itself
B) Directive principle
C) Fundamental duty
D) Non‑justiciable right
Explanation: Article 32 itself is a Fundamental Right.
Q125. Article 32 reflects:
✅ A) Judicial supremacy in enforcement of Fundamental Rights
B) Parliamentary supremacy
C) Presidential supremacy
D) Governor’s supremacy
Explanation: Reflects judicial supremacy.
Q126. Fundamental Rights are subject to:
✅ A) Reasonable restrictions imposed by State
B) No restrictions
C) Unlimited exercise
D) Absolute freedom
Explanation: Rights are not absolute, subject to restrictions.
Q127. Restrictions on Article 19 freedoms are imposed for:
✅ A) Public order, morality, security of State, friendly relations with foreign States
B) Unlimited reasons
C) Political convenience only
D) Religious convenience only
Explanation: Restrictions listed in Constitution.
Q128. Freedom of speech can be restricted for:
✅ A) Defamation, contempt of court, incitement to offense
B) Any reason
C) Political dissent
D) Criticism of government
Explanation: Specific grounds under Article 19(2).
Q129. Freedom of assembly can be restricted for:
✅ A) Public order
B) Any reason
C) Political dissent
D) Criticism of government
Explanation: Restricted for public order.
Q130. Freedom of association can be restricted for:
✅ A) Public order, morality, sovereignty
B) Any reason
C) Political dissent
D) Criticism of government
Explanation: Restricted for sovereignty, public order.
Q131. Freedom of movement can be restricted for:
✅ A) Security of State, public interest
B) Any reason
C) Political dissent
D) Criticism of government
Explanation: Restricted for security/public interest.
Q132. Freedom of residence can be restricted for:
✅ A) Security of State, public interest
B) Any reason
C) Political dissent
D) Criticism of government
Explanation: Restricted for security/public interest.
Q133. Freedom of profession can be restricted for:
✅ A) Public interest, technical qualifications, State monopoly
B) Any reason
C) Political dissent
D) Criticism of government
Explanation: Restricted for public interest, qualifications.
Q134. During emergency under Article 352, Fundamental Rights under Article 19:
✅ A) Automatically suspended
B) Continue without restriction
C) Suspended only by President
D) Suspended only by Parliament
Explanation: Article 19 rights automatically suspended.
Q135. During emergency under Article 356, Fundamental Rights:
✅ A) Not automatically suspended
B) Automatically suspended
C) Suspended only by President
D) Suspended only by Parliament
Explanation: Rights not automatically suspended.
Q136. During emergency under Article 360 (financial emergency), Fundamental Rights:
✅ A) Not automatically suspended
B) Automatically suspended
C) Suspended only by President
D) Suspended only by Parliament
Explanation: Not automatically suspended.
Q137. Article 359 empowers President to:
✅ A) Suspend enforcement of Fundamental Rights (except Articles 20 & 21)
B) Suspend Fundamental Rights themselves
C) Suspend Directive Principles
D) Suspend Fundamental Duties
Explanation: Enforcement can be suspended, not rights themselves.
Q138. Article 358 suspends:
✅ A) Article 19 rights during emergency under Article 352
B) All rights during emergency
C) Articles 20 & 21
D) Articles 29 & 30
Explanation: Article 19 rights suspended.
Q139. Doctrine of severability means:
✅ A) Invalid part of law can be separated from valid part
B) Entire law invalid if one part invalid
C) Law always valid
D) Law always invalid
Explanation: Severability doctrine under Article 13.
Q140. Doctrine of eclipse means:
✅ A) Pre‑constitutional law inconsistent with FRs becomes dormant, revives if inconsistency removed
B) Law always invalid
C) Law always valid
D) Law always repealed
Explanation: Eclipse doctrine under Article 13.
Q141. Doctrine of waiver means:
✅ A) Fundamental Rights cannot be waived by individual
B) Fundamental Rights can be waived
C) Rights always waived
D) Rights never waived
Explanation: FRs cannot be waived.
Q142. Doctrine of harmonious construction means:
✅ A) FRs and DPSPs must be harmonized
B) FRs override DPSPs always
C) DPSPs override FRs always
D) No relation
Explanation: Harmonious construction doctrine.
Q143. Doctrine of basic structure means:
✅ A) Parliament cannot amend basic features of Constitution
B) Parliament can amend anything
C) Parliament cannot amend FRs
D) Parliament cannot amend DPSPs
Explanation: Basic structure doctrine from Kesavananda Bharati case.
Q144. Fundamental Rights are enforceable against:
✅ A) State
B) Private individuals only
C) Foreigners only
D) Refugees only
Explanation: Enforceable against State.
Q145. Some Fundamental Rights are enforceable against:
✅ A) Private individuals also (e.g., Articles 17, 23)
B) State only
C) Foreigners only
D) Refugees only
Explanation: Articles 17 & 23 enforceable against private individuals.
Q146. Fundamental Rights are justiciable, meaning:
✅ A) Enforceable by courts
B) Non‑enforceable
C) Directive principles
D) Fundamental duties
Explanation: FRs are justiciable.
Q147. Fundamental Rights are negative obligations on:
✅ A) State (not to encroach upon individual liberty)
B) Citizens
C) Foreigners
D) Refugees
Explanation: Negative obligations on State.
Q148. Fundamental Rights are positive obligations on:
✅ A) State (to protect individual liberty)
B) Citizens
C) Foreigners
D) Refugees
Explanation: Positive obligations too.
Q149. Fundamental Rights are described as:
✅ A) Transcendental, inalienable, primordial rights
B) Ordinary rights
C) Directive principles
D) Fundamental duties
Explanation: FRs are transcendental, inalienable.
Q150. Fundamental Rights ensure:
✅ A) Political democracy in India
B) Economic democracy only
C) Social democracy only
D) Monarchy
Explanation: FRs ensure political democracy.
Q151. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973) established:
✅ A) Basic structure doctrine
B) Doctrine of severability
C) Doctrine of eclipse
D) Doctrine of waiver
Explanation: Landmark case establishing basic structure doctrine.
Q152. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978) expanded:
✅ A) Scope of Article 21 (life and liberty)
B) Scope of Article 19
C) Scope of Article 14
D) Scope of Article 32
Explanation: Expanded Article 21 to include due process.
Q153. A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras (1950) held:
✅ A) Article 21 interpreted narrowly (procedure established by law)
B) Article 21 interpreted broadly
C) Article 19 interpreted broadly
D) Article 32 interpreted broadly
Explanation: Narrow interpretation of Article 21.
Q154. Maneka Gandhi case overruled:
✅ A) A.K. Gopalan case narrow interpretation
B) Kesavananda Bharati case
C) Minerva Mills case
D) Golaknath case
Explanation: Overruled narrow interpretation of Article 21.
Q155. Golaknath v. State of Punjab (1967) held:
✅ A) Parliament cannot amend Fundamental Rights
B) Parliament can amend Fundamental Rights
C) Parliament cannot amend DPSPs
D) Parliament cannot amend duties
Explanation: Held FRs beyond amendment.
Q156. Kesavananda Bharati case modified Golaknath by:
✅ A) Allowing amendment but not of basic structure
B) Disallowing all amendments
C) Allowing unlimited amendments
D) Allowing amendment of DPSPs only
Explanation: Allowed amendment but not basic structure.
Q157. Minerva Mills v. Union of India (1980) held:
✅ A) Balance between FRs and DPSPs is part of basic structure
B) DPSPs override FRs
C) FRs override DPSPs
D) Parliament has unlimited power
Explanation: Balance is part of basic structure.
Q158. Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain (1975) held:
✅ A) Free and fair elections are part of basic structure
B) Parliament has unlimited power
C) President has unlimited power
D) Judiciary has unlimited power
Explanation: Free and fair elections part of basic structure.
Q159. S.R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994) held:
✅ A) Secularism is part of basic structure
B) Federalism not part of basic structure
C) Parliament has unlimited power
D) President has unlimited power
Explanation: Secularism part of basic structure.
Q160. Champakam Dorairajan v. State of Madras (1951) held:
✅ A) FRs override DPSPs
B) DPSPs override FRs
C) Parliament has unlimited power
D) President has unlimited power
Explanation: FRs override DPSPs.
Q161. Unni Krishnan v. State of Andhra Pradesh (1993) held:
✅ A) Right to education is part of Article 21
B) Right to property is part of Article 21
C) Right to vote is part of Article 21
D) Right to marriage is part of Article 21
Explanation: Education part of Article 21.
Q162. Mohini Jain v. State of Karnataka (1992) held:
✅ A) Right to education is Fundamental Right
B) Right to property is Fundamental Right
C) Right to vote is Fundamental Right
D) Right to marriage is Fundamental Right
Explanation: Education recognized as FR.
Q163. Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation (1985) held:
✅ A) Right to livelihood is part of Article 21
B) Right to property is part of Article 21
C) Right to vote is part of Article 21
D) Right to marriage is part of Article 21
Explanation: Livelihood part of Article 21.
Q164. Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan (1997) held:
✅ A) Sexual harassment violates Article 21 and equality rights
B) Property rights violated
C) Voting rights violated
D) Marriage rights violated
Explanation: Sexual harassment guidelines issued.
Q165. Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India (2018) held:
✅ A) Decriminalized homosexuality under Article 21
B) Decriminalized property disputes
C) Decriminalized voting disputes
D) Decriminalized marriage disputes
Explanation: Section 377 partially struck down.
Q166. Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017) held:
✅ A) Right to privacy is part of Article 21
B) Right to property is part of Article 21
C) Right to vote is part of Article 21
D) Right to marriage is part of Article 21
Explanation: Privacy recognized as FR.
Q167. ADM Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla (1976) held:
✅ A) During emergency, right to life suspended
B) Right to life continues
C) Right to property suspended
D) Right to vote suspended
Explanation: Held life suspended, later overruled.
Q168. ADM Jabalpur case was overruled by:
✅ A) Maneka Gandhi case and later judgments
B) Kesavananda Bharati case
C) Golaknath case
D) Minerva Mills case
Explanation: Overruled by later judgments.
Q169. I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu (2007) held:
✅ A) Laws placed in Ninth Schedule after 1973 subject to judicial review
B) Ninth Schedule laws immune always
C) Ninth Schedule laws never immune
D) Ninth Schedule laws irrelevant
Explanation: Ninth Schedule laws subject to review.
Q170. Shreya Singhal v. Union of India (2015) held:
✅ A) Struck down Section 66A of IT Act as unconstitutional
B) Struck down Section 377
C) Struck down property rights
D) Struck down voting rights
Explanation: Section 66A struck down.
Q171. Pavement dwellers’ rights upheld in:
✅ A) Olga Tellis case
B) Maneka Gandhi case
C) Kesavananda Bharati case
D) Golaknath case
Explanation: Olga Tellis upheld livelihood rights.
Q172. Right to free legal aid recognized in:
✅ A) Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar (1979)
B) Maneka Gandhi case
C) Kesavananda Bharati case
D) Golaknath case
Explanation: Free legal aid recognized.
Q173. Right to speedy trial recognized in:
✅ A) Hussainara Khatoon case
B) Maneka Gandhi case
C) Kesavananda Bharati case
D) Golaknath case
Explanation: Speedy trial recognized.
Q174. Right to clean environment recognized in:
✅ A) Subhash Kumar v. State of Bihar (1991)
B) Maneka Gandhi case
C) Kesavananda Bharati case
D) Golaknath case
Explanation: Clean environment part of Article 21.
Q175. Right to health recognized in:
✅ A) Consumer Education & Research Centre v. Union of India (1995)
B) Maneka Gandhi case
C) Kesavananda Bharati case
D) Golaknath case
Explanation: Health part of Article 21.
Q176. Assertion (A): Fundamental Rights in India are inspired by USA Bill of Rights.
Reason (R): They are enshrined in Part III of Constitution.
✅ A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation
B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation
C) A is true, R is false
D) A is false, R is true
Explanation: Indian FRs are inspired by USA and codified in Part III.
Q177. Assertion (A): Article 19 freedoms apply to citizens only.
Reason (R): Constitution restricts them to citizens.
✅ A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation
B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation
C) A is true, R is false
D) A is false, R is true
Explanation: Article 19 applies only to citizens.
Q178. Assertion (A): Article 21 applies to all persons.
Reason (R): Life and liberty protection is universal.
✅ A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation
B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation
C) A is true, R is false
D) A is false, R is true
Explanation: Article 21 applies to citizens and non-citizens.
Q179. Assertion (A): Right to property is a Fundamental Right.
Reason (R): Article 31 guarantees it.
✅ A) Both A and R are false
B) Both A and R are true
C) A is true, R is false
D) A is false, R is true
Explanation: Article 31 was repealed; property is now a legal right under Article 300A.
Q180. Match the following:
1. Article 14 → Equality before law
2. Article 19 → Six freedoms
3. Article 21 → Life and liberty
4. Article 32 → Constitutional remedies
✅ A) 1‑A, 2‑B, 3‑C, 4‑D
Explanation: Core rights mapped to their respective Articles.
Q181. Match the following writs:
1. Habeas Corpus → Release from unlawful detention
2. Mandamus → Command to perform duty
3. Prohibition → Stop lower court proceedings
4. Certiorari → Transfer case for review
✅ A) 1‑A, 2‑B, 3‑C, 4‑D
Explanation: Standard writ definitions.
Q182. Match the following doctrines:
1. Severability → Invalid part of law removed
2. Eclipse → Dormant law revived after amendment
3. Waiver → FRs cannot be waived
4. Basic Structure → Limits Parliament’s amendment power
✅ A) 1‑A, 2‑B, 3‑C, 4‑D
Explanation: Key doctrines shaping FR jurisprudence.
Q183. Comparative: USA Constitution guarantees right to bear arms.
✅ A) True
B) False
Explanation: Second Amendment guarantees this right.
Q184. Comparative: UK Constitution is unwritten but guarantees rule of law.
✅ A) True
B) False
Explanation: UK follows constitutional conventions and rule of law.
Q185. Comparative: France emphasizes liberty, equality, fraternity.
✅ A) True
B) False
Explanation: Core values from French Revolution.
Q186. Comparative: South Africa Constitution guarantees right to environment.
✅ A) True
B) False
Explanation: Explicitly recognized in South African Constitution.
Q187. Comparative: Indian Constitution guarantees right to property as Fundamental Right.
✅ A) False
B) True
Explanation: Property is now a legal right, not a Fundamental Right.
Q188. Assertion (A): Fundamental Rights are enforceable by writs.
Reason (R): Supreme Court and High Courts are empowered.
✅ A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation
B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation
C) A is true, R is false
D) A is false, R is true
Explanation: Writ jurisdiction under Articles 32 and 226.
Q189. Assertion (A): Fundamental Rights are absolute.
Reason (R): No restrictions apply.
✅ A) Both A and R are false
B) Both A and R are true
C) A is true, R is false
D) A is false, R is true
Explanation: FRs are subject to reasonable restrictions.
Q190. Assertion (A): Fundamental Rights are justiciable.
Reason (R): Courts can enforce them.
✅ A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation
B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation
C) A is true, R is false
D) A is false, R is true
Explanation: FRs are enforceable through judiciary.
Q191. Assertion (A): Fundamental Rights are the heart and soul of the Constitution.
Reason (R): Dr. Ambedkar described Article 32 as such.
✅ A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation
B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation
C) A is true, R is false
D) A is false, R is true
Explanation: Article 32 is the enforcement mechanism.
Q192. Match the following case laws:
1. Kesavananda Bharati → Basic structure doctrine
2. Maneka Gandhi → Expanded Article 21
3. Vishaka → Sexual harassment guidelines
4. Puttaswamy → Right to privacy
✅ A) 1‑A, 2‑B, 3‑C, 4‑D
Explanation: Landmark judgments shaping FRs.
Q193. Match the following Articles to rights:
1. Article 15 → No discrimination
2. Article 17 → Abolition of untouchability
3. Article 25 → Freedom of religion
4. Article 29 → Protection of minority culture
✅ A) 1‑A, 2‑B, 3‑C, 4‑D
Explanation: Direct mapping of Articles to rights.
Q194. Assertion (A): Article 21 includes right to clean environment.
Reason (R): Supreme Court interpreted it in Subhash Kumar case.
✅ A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation
B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation
C) A is true, R is false
D) A is false, R is true
Explanation: Environment is part of life under Article 21.
Q195. Assertion (A): Article 21 includes right to health.
Reason (R): Recognized in Consumer Education & Research Centre case.
✅ A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation
B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation
C) A is true, R is false
D) A is false, R is true
Explanation: Health is part of life and dignity.
Q196. Assertion (A): Article 21 includes right to livelihood.
Reason (R): Recognized in Olga Tellis case.
✅ A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation
B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation
C) A is true, R is false
D) A is false, R is true
Explanation: Livelihood is essential to life.
Q197. Assertion (A): Article 21 includes right to speedy trial.
Reason (R): Recognized in Hussainara Khatoon case.
✅ A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation
B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation
C) A is true, R is false
D) A is false, R is true
Explanation: Speedy trial is part of fair procedure.
Q198. Assertion (A): Article 21 includes right to free legal aid.
Reason (R): Recognized in Hussainara Khatoon case.
✅ A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation
B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation
C) A is true, R is false
D) A is false, R is true
Explanation: Legal aid ensures access to justice.
Q199. Assertion (A): Article 21 includes right to education.
Reason (R): Recognized in Unni Krishnan case.
✅ A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation
B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation
C) A is true, R is false
D) A is false, R is true
Explanation: Education linked to dignity and development.
Q200. Assertion (A): Article 21 includes right to dignity.
Reason (R): Supreme Court has interpreted life to include dignity.
✅ A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation
B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation
C) A is true, R is false
D) A is false
Q176. Assertion (A): Fundamental Rights in India are inspired by USA Bill of Rights.
Reason (R): They are enshrined in Part III of Constitution.
✅ A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation
B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation
C) A is true, R is false
D) A is false, R is true
Explanation: Indian FRs are inspired by USA and codified in Part III.
Q177. Assertion (A): Article 19 freedoms apply to citizens only.
Reason (R): Constitution restricts them to citizens.
✅ A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation
B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation
C) A is true, R is false
D) A is false, R is true
Explanation: Article 19 applies only to citizens.
Q178. Assertion (A): Article 21 applies to all persons.
Reason (R): Life and liberty protection is universal.
✅ A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation
B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation
C) A is true, R is false
D) A is false, R is true
Explanation: Article 21 applies to citizens and non-citizens.
Q179. Assertion (A): Right to property is a Fundamental Right.
Reason (R): Article 31 guarantees it.
✅ A) Both A and R are false
B) Both A and R are true
C) A is true, R is false
D) A is false, R is true
Explanation: Article 31 was repealed; property is now a legal right under Article 300A.
Q180. Match the following:
1. Article 14 → Equality before law
2. Article 19 → Six freedoms
3. Article 21 → Life and liberty
4. Article 32 → Constitutional remedies
✅ A) 1‑A, 2‑B, 3‑C, 4‑D
Explanation: Core rights mapped to their respective Articles.
Q181. Match the following writs:
1. Habeas Corpus → Release from unlawful detention
2. Mandamus → Command to perform duty
3. Prohibition → Stop lower court proceedings
4. Certiorari → Transfer case for review
✅ A) 1‑A, 2‑B, 3‑C, 4‑D
Explanation: Standard writ definitions.
Q182. Match the following doctrines:
1. Severability → Invalid part of law removed
2. Eclipse → Dormant law revived after amendment
3. Waiver → FRs cannot be waived
4. Basic Structure → Limits Parliament’s amendment power
✅ A) 1‑A, 2‑B, 3‑C, 4‑D
Explanation: Key doctrines shaping FR jurisprudence.
Q183. Comparative: USA Constitution guarantees right to bear arms.
✅ A) True
B) False
Explanation: Second Amendment guarantees this right.
Q184. Comparative: UK Constitution is unwritten but guarantees rule of law.
✅ A) True
B) False
Explanation: UK follows constitutional conventions and rule of law.
Q185. Comparative: France emphasizes liberty, equality, fraternity.
✅ A) True
B) False
Explanation: Core values from French Revolution.
Q186. Comparative: South Africa Constitution guarantees right to environment.
✅ A) True
B) False
Explanation: Explicitly recognized in South African Constitution.
Q187. Comparative: Indian Constitution guarantees right to property as Fundamental Right.
✅ A) False
B) True
Explanation: Property is now a legal right, not a Fundamental Right.
Q188. Assertion (A): Fundamental Rights are enforceable by writs.
Reason (R): Supreme Court and High Courts are empowered.
✅ A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation
B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation
C) A is true, R is false
D) A is false, R is true
Explanation: Writ jurisdiction under Articles 32 and 226.
Q189. Assertion (A): Fundamental Rights are absolute.
Reason (R): No restrictions apply.
✅ A) Both A and R are false
B) Both A and R are true
C) A is true, R is false
D) A is false, R is true
Explanation: FRs are subject to reasonable restrictions.
Q190. Assertion (A): Fundamental Rights are justiciable.
Reason (R): Courts can enforce them.
✅ A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation
B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation
C) A is true, R is false
D) A is false, R is true
Explanation: FRs are enforceable through judiciary.
Q191. Assertion (A): Fundamental Rights are the heart and soul of the Constitution.
Reason (R): Dr. Ambedkar described Article 32 as such.
✅ A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation
B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation
C) A is true, R is false
D) A is false, R is true
Explanation: Article 32 is the enforcement mechanism.
Q192. Match the following case laws:
1. Kesavananda Bharati → Basic structure doctrine
2. Maneka Gandhi → Expanded Article 21
3. Vishaka → Sexual harassment guidelines
4. Puttaswamy → Right to privacy
✅ A) 1‑A, 2‑B, 3‑C, 4‑D
Explanation: Landmark judgments shaping FRs.
Q193. Match the following Articles to rights:
1. Article 15 → No discrimination
2. Article 17 → Abolition of untouchability
3. Article 25 → Freedom of religion
4. Article 29 → Protection of minority culture
✅ A) 1‑A, 2‑B, 3‑C, 4‑D
Explanation: Direct mapping of Articles to rights.
Q194. Assertion (A): Article 21 includes right to clean environment.
Reason (R): Supreme Court interpreted it in Subhash Kumar case.
✅ A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation
B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation
C) A is true, R is false
D) A is false, R is true
Explanation: Environment is part of life under Article 21.
Q195. Assertion (A): Article 21 includes right to health.
Reason (R): Recognized in Consumer Education & Research Centre case.
✅ A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation
B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation
C) A is true, R is false
D) A is false, R is true
Explanation: Health is part of life and dignity.
Q196. Assertion (A): Article 21 includes right to livelihood.
Reason (R): Recognized in Olga Tellis case.
✅ A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation
B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation
C) A is true, R is false
D) A is false, R is true
Explanation: Livelihood is essential to life.
Q197. Assertion (A): Article 21 includes right to speedy trial.
Reason (R): Recognized in Hussainara Khatoon case.
✅ A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation
B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation
C) A is true, R is false
D) A is false, R is true
Explanation: Speedy trial is part of fair procedure.
Q198. Assertion (A): Article 21 includes right to free legal aid.
Reason (R): Recognized in Hussainara Khatoon case.
✅ A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation
B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation
C) A is true, R is false
D) A is false, R is true
Explanation: Legal aid ensures access to justice.
Q199. Assertion (A): Article 21 includes right to education.
Reason (R): Recognized in Unni Krishnan case.
✅ A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation
B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation
C) A is true, R is false
D) A is false, R is true
Explanation: Education linked to dignity and development.
Q200. Assertion (A): Article 21 includes right to dignity.
Reason (R): Supreme Court has interpreted life to include dignity.
✅ A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation
B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation
C) A is true, R is false
D) A is false, R is true
Explanation: The Supreme Court has consistently held that the right to life under Article 21 includes the right to live with dignity, forming the foundation for rights like privacy, health, livelihood, and education.
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