Emergency & Presidential Rule
The Emergency & President’s Rule in Indian Polity 100 MCQ master set provides comprehensive coverage of constitutional provisions, landmark case laws, and historical events that shaped India’s democratic framework. It spans National Emergency (Article 352), President’s Rule (Article 356), and Financial Emergency (Article 360), along with their grounds, procedures, duration, and effects on federalism and fundamental rights. The set integrates landmark judgments such as ADM Jabalpur, Minerva Mills, Kesavananda Bharati, and SR Bommai, while analyzing the 1962, 1971, and 1975 Emergencies. Recommendations from the Sarkaria and Punchhi Commissions, as well as reforms introduced by the 42nd and 44th Amendments, are included to ensure analytical depth. Assertion–Reason and mixed MCQs further strengthen conceptual clarity and exam authenticity. Designed for UPSC, SSC, PSC, and other competitive exams, this master set guarantees syllabus completeness, transparency, and deployment‑ready content for students and educators.
A) Article 352
B) Article 356
C) Article 360
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Article 352 provides for National Emergency.
Q2. Grounds for National Emergency include:
A) War
B) External aggression
C) Armed rebellion
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: War, external aggression, armed rebellion are grounds.
Q3. National Emergency proclamation is made by:
A) President of India
B) Prime Minister
C) Parliament
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: President issues proclamation.
Q4. Parliamentary approval for National Emergency must be obtained within:
A) 1 month
B) 2 months
C) 3 months
D) None
✅ Correct: B
Explanation: Approval required within 2 months.
Q5. Duration of National Emergency after approval:
A) 6 months at a time
B) 1 year
C) 3 months
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Emergency continues for 6 months at a time.
Q6. Maximum duration of National Emergency:
A) Unlimited (with parliamentary approval)
B) 3 years
C) 5 years
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Can continue indefinitely with approval.
Q7. National Emergency affects:
A) Fundamental Rights
B) Centre–State relations
C) Executive powers
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Emergency impacts rights & federalism.
Q8. Suspension of Fundamental Rights during Emergency excludes:
A) Articles 20 & 21
B) Articles 14 & 19
C) Articles 32 & 226
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Articles 20 & 21 cannot be suspended.
Q9. National Emergency proclamation must be communicated to:
A) Both Houses of Parliament
B) Supreme Court
C) Governors
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Must be laid before Parliament.
Q10. Revocation of National Emergency is by:
A) President
B) Prime Minister
C) Parliament
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: President can revoke proclamation.
Q11. National Emergency can be revoked by:
A) Simple majority in Lok Sabha
B) Rajya Sabha resolution
C) President’s order
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Revocation possible by President or Lok Sabha resolution.
Q12. Lok Sabha can disapprove Emergency by:
A) Simple majority of members present
B) Majority of total membership
C) Two‑thirds majority
D) None
✅ Correct: B
Explanation: Majority of total membership required.
Q13. First National Emergency in India was proclaimed in:
A) 1962 (China war)
B) 1971 (Pakistan war)
C) 1975 (Internal emergency)
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: First Emergency during 1962 war.
Q14. Second National Emergency proclaimed in:
A) 1971 (Indo‑Pak war)
B) 1965 (Indo‑Pak war)
C) 1975 (Internal emergency)
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Second Emergency during 1971 war.
Q15. Third National Emergency proclaimed in:
A) 1975 (Internal emergency)
B) 1962
C) 1971
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Third Emergency proclaimed in 1975.
Q16. 42nd Amendment (1976) effect on Emergency:
A) Strengthened Centre’s power
B) Limited duration
C) Removed parliamentary approval
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: 42nd Amendment expanded Centre’s authority.
Q17. 44th Amendment (1978) effect on Emergency:
A) Restricted grounds to war, external aggression, armed rebellion
B) Limited suspension of rights
C) Required Lok Sabha approval
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: 44th Amendment restricted misuse.
Q18. During National Emergency, Parliament can legislate on:
A) State List subjects
B) Union List only
C) Concurrent List only
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Parliament can legislate on State List.
Q19. During National Emergency, Centre’s executive power extends to:
A) All states
B) Union Territories only
C) Concurrent subjects only
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Centre assumes control over states.
Q20. Fundamental Rights suspended during Emergency by:
A) Presidential order under Article 359
B) Parliament resolution
C) Supreme Court order
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Rights suspended by Presidential order.
Q21. President’s Rule is proclaimed under:
A) Article 356
B) Article 352
C) Article 360
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Article 356 provides for President’s Rule.
Q22. Grounds for President’s Rule include:
A) Failure of constitutional machinery in a state
B) Breakdown of law & order
C) Inability to comply with Union directions
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: All are valid grounds.
Q23. President’s Rule proclamation is made by:
A) President of India
B) Prime Minister
C) Governor
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: President issues proclamation.
Q24. Parliamentary approval for President’s Rule must be obtained within:
A) 2 months
B) 3 months
C) 6 months
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Approval required within 2 months.
Q25. Duration of President’s Rule after approval:
A) 6 months at a time
B) 1 year
C) 3 months
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Continues for 6 months at a time.
Q26. Maximum duration of President’s Rule:
A) 3 years (with parliamentary approval)
B) Unlimited
C) 5 years
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Maximum 3 years with approval.
Q27. Extension beyond 1 year requires:
A) National Emergency in operation
B) Election Commission certification
C) Supreme Court approval
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Extension beyond 1 year requires National Emergency.
Q28. President’s Rule affects:
A) State Legislative Assembly
B) State Council of Ministers
C) Governor’s powers
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Assembly dissolved/suspended, Governor assumes powers.
Q29. During President’s Rule, Parliament can legislate on:
A) State List subjects
B) Union List only
C) Concurrent List only
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Parliament legislates on State List.
Q30. President’s Rule can be revoked by:
A) President at any time
B) Parliament resolution
C) Supreme Court order
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: President can revoke proclamation.
Q31. First use of Article 356 was in:
A) PEPSU (1951)
B) Kerala (1959)
C) Punjab (1951)
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: First used in PEPSU in 1951.
Q32. President’s Rule in Kerala (1959) was due to:
A) Communist government dismissed
B) Governor’s recommendation
C) Breakdown of law & order
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Communist govt dismissed, Governor recommended.
Q33. Longest President’s Rule in a state:
A) Punjab (1990–92)
B) J&K (1990–96)
C) Bihar (1999–2000)
D) None
✅ Correct: B
Explanation: J&K under President’s Rule for 6 years.
Q34. SR Bommai case (1994) relevance:
A) Judicial review of Article 356
B) Limited Centre’s misuse
C) Strengthened federalism
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Landmark case restricting misuse.
Q35. Sarkaria Commission recommended:
A) Article 356 to be used sparingly
B) Governor’s report to be objective
C) Judicial review allowed
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Recommendations to prevent misuse.
Q36. Punchhi Commission recommended:
A) Safeguards against misuse of Article 356
B) Limited duration
C) Strengthened federalism
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Punchhi Commission suggested safeguards.
Q37. During President’s Rule, Governor acts:
A) As agent of Centre
B) Independent authority
C) Judicial officer
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Governor acts on behalf of Centre.
Q38. President’s Rule can be imposed without Governor’s recommendation:
A) Yes
B) No
C) Only during Emergency
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Governor’s report not mandatory.
Q39. President’s Rule approval requires:
A) Simple majority in both Houses
B) Two‑thirds majority
C) Majority of total membership
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Simple majority required.
Q40. President’s Rule affects:
A) State executive & legislature
B) Judiciary remains unaffected
C) Parliament assumes legislative power
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Executive & legislature suspended, judiciary unaffected.
Q41. Financial Emergency can be proclaimed under:
A) Article 360
B) Article 352
C) Article 356
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Article 360 provides for Financial Emergency.
Q42. Grounds for Financial Emergency include:
A) Threat to financial stability or credit of India
B) War
C) External aggression
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Triggered by threat to financial stability.
Q43. Financial Emergency proclamation is made by:
A) President of India
B) Prime Minister
C) Parliament
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: President issues proclamation.
Q44. Parliamentary approval for Financial Emergency must be obtained within:
A) 2 months
B) 3 months
C) 6 months
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Approval required within 2 months.
Q45. Duration of Financial Emergency after approval:
A) Unlimited (continues until revoked)
B) 6 months
C) 1 year
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Continues indefinitely until revoked.
Q46. During Financial Emergency, Centre can:
A) Direct States to observe financial propriety
B) Reduce salaries of government employees
C) Reserve financial bills for President’s consideration
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Centre assumes financial control.
Q47. Financial Emergency affects:
A) Salaries of judges
B) Salaries of civil servants
C) State financial autonomy
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Salaries & autonomy affected.
Q48. Financial Emergency has been proclaimed in India:
A) Never
B) Once (1962)
C) Twice (1975, 1991)
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Financial Emergency has never been proclaimed.
Q49. Financial Emergency requires approval by:
A) Simple majority in both Houses
B) Two‑thirds majority
C) Majority of total membership
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Simple majority required.
Q50. Financial Emergency revocation is by:
A) President at any time
B) Parliament resolution
C) Supreme Court order
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: President can revoke proclamation.
Q51. ADM Jabalpur vs Shivkant Shukla (1976) is popularly known as:
A) Habeas Corpus case
B) Kesavananda Bharati case
C) Minerva Mills case
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Known as Habeas Corpus case during Emergency.
Q52. ADM Jabalpur case held that:
A) Right to life can be suspended during Emergency
B) Fundamental Rights remain intact
C) Parliament cannot amend Constitution
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: SC held right to life could be suspended.
Q53. Minerva Mills case (1980) relevance:
A) Limited Parliament’s power to amend Constitution
B) Upheld Emergency provisions
C) Removed judicial review
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Case restricted Parliament’s amending power.
Q54. Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) relevance:
A) Established basic structure doctrine
B) Upheld Emergency provisions
C) Removed judicial review
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Case established basic structure doctrine.
Q55. SR Bommai case (1994) relevance:
A) Judicial review of President’s Rule
B) Upheld Emergency provisions
C) Removed judicial review
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Case allowed judicial review of Article 356.
Q56. 1975 Emergency proclaimed by:
A) President Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
B) Prime Minister Indira Gandhi
C) Parliament
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: President proclaimed Emergency on PM’s advice.
Q57. Grounds for 1975 Emergency:
A) Internal disturbance
B) War
C) External aggression
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Emergency proclaimed due to internal disturbance.
Q58. Duration of 1975 Emergency:
A) 21 months
B) 12 months
C) 6 months
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Lasted from June 1975 to March 1977.
Q59. Fundamental Rights suspended during 1975 Emergency included:
A) Article 19
B) Article 21
C) Article 14
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Rights under Articles 14, 19, 21 suspended.
Q60. Shah Commission (1977) investigated:
A) Excesses during 1975 Emergency
B) Panchayati Raj reforms
C) Finance distribution
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Investigated Emergency excesses.
Q61. Indira Gandhi vs Raj Narain case (1975) relevance:
A) Triggered 1975 Emergency
B) Upheld Emergency provisions
C) Removed judicial review
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Case led to political crisis & Emergency.
Q62. 44th Amendment (1978) effect on Emergency provisions:
A) Restricted grounds to war, external aggression, armed rebellion
B) Protected Articles 20 & 21 from suspension
C) Required Lok Sabha approval for continuation
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Amendment restricted misuse.
Q63. During 1975 Emergency, censorship was imposed on:
A) Press
B) Judiciary
C) Parliament
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Press censorship imposed.
Q64. Emergency of 1962 was due to:
A) Chinese aggression
B) Internal disturbance
C) Financial instability
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Emergency proclaimed during China war.
Q65. Emergency of 1971 was due to:
A) Indo‑Pak war
B) Internal disturbance
C) Financial instability
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Emergency proclaimed during Indo‑Pak war.
Q66. Emergency of 1975 was unique because:
A) Internal disturbance ground used
B) Longest Emergency in India
C) Fundamental Rights suspended extensively
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: 1975 Emergency was unprecedented.
Q67. Judicial review of Emergency provisions restored by:
A) 44th Amendment (1978)
B) 42nd Amendment (1976)
C) Kesavananda Bharati case
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: 44th Amendment restored review.
Q68. Emergency provisions criticized for:
A) Centralization of power
B) Suspension of rights
C) Misuse by executive
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Criticized for authoritarian misuse.
Q69. Sarkaria Commission (1983) recommended:
A) Emergency provisions to be used sparingly
B) Governor’s report to be objective
C) Judicial review allowed
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Recommendations to prevent misuse.
Q70. Punchhi Commission (2007) recommended:
A) Safeguards against misuse of Emergency provisions
B) Limited duration
C) Strengthened federalism
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Punchhi Commission suggested safeguards.
Q71. Article 352 provides for:
A) National Emergency
B) President’s Rule
C) Financial Emergency
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Article 352 establishes National Emergency.
Q72. Article 356 provides for:
A) President’s Rule
B) National Emergency
C) Financial Emergency
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Article 356 establishes President’s Rule.
Q73. Article 360 provides for:
A) Financial Emergency
B) National Emergency
C) President’s Rule
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Article 360 establishes Financial Emergency.
Q74. Article 358 provides for:
A) Suspension of Article 19 during National Emergency
B) Suspension of Article 21
C) Suspension of Article 14
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Article 19 rights suspended during Emergency.
Q75. Article 359 provides for:
A) Suspension of enforcement of Fundamental Rights
B) Suspension of Parliament
C) Suspension of Judiciary
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Enforcement of rights suspended by Presidential order.
Q76. Sarkaria Commission (1983) recommended:
A) Article 356 to be used sparingly
B) Governor’s report to be objective
C) Judicial review allowed
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Recommendations to prevent misuse.
Q77. Punchhi Commission (2007) recommended:
A) Safeguards against misuse of Emergency provisions
B) Limited duration
C) Strengthened federalism
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Punchhi Commission suggested safeguards.
Q78. ARC II (2005) recommended:
A) Transparency in Emergency powers
B) Strengthened federalism
C) Judicial review
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: ARC II emphasized reforms.
Q79. Assertion (A): National Emergency can be proclaimed on grounds of war, external aggression, armed rebellion.
Reason (R): Article 352 provides these grounds.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Article 352 provides these grounds.
Q80. Assertion (A): President’s Rule can be imposed without Governor’s recommendation.
Reason (R): Governor’s report is mandatory.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: C
Explanation: Governor’s report not mandatory.
Q81. Assertion (A): Financial Emergency has been proclaimed in India.
Reason (R): Article 360 provides for it.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: C
Explanation: Article 360 provides, but never proclaimed.
Q82. Assertion (A): Articles 20 & 21 can be suspended during Emergency.
Reason (R): Article 359 allows suspension of all rights.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Articles 20 & 21 cannot be suspended.
Q83. Assertion (A): 44th Amendment restricted misuse of Emergency provisions.
Reason (R): It protected Articles 20 & 21 and required Lok Sabha approval.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: 44th Amendment introduced safeguards.
Q84. Assertion (A): SR Bommai case upheld unlimited Centre’s power under Article 356.
Reason (R): Judicial review was disallowed.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: SR Bommai restricted misuse, allowed review.
Q85. Assertion (A): During National Emergency, Parliament can legislate on State List.
Reason (R): Centre assumes legislative power.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Parliament legislates on State List.
Q86. Assertion (A): Financial Emergency affects salaries of judges.
Reason (R): Centre can reduce salaries under Article 360.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Salaries can be reduced.
Q87. Assertion (A): 42nd Amendment strengthened Centre’s power during Emergency.
Reason (R): It expanded grounds for proclamation.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: 42nd Amendment expanded Centre’s authority.
Q88. Assertion (A): Emergency provisions are criticized for authoritarian misuse.
Reason (R): They allow suspension of rights and centralization of power.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Criticized for authoritarian misuse.
Q89. Assertion (A): Governor’s report is mandatory for Article 356.
Reason (R): Without Governor’s report, President cannot act.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Governor’s report not mandatory.
Q90. Assertion (A): Emergency provisions strengthen federalism.
Reason (R): They allow Centre to assume state powers.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Emergency provisions weaken federalism.
Q91. Assertion (A): Judicial review of Emergency provisions is barred.
Reason (R): Parliament has unlimited power.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Judicial review allowed after 44th Amendment.
Q92. Assertion (A): National Emergency can be proclaimed on grounds of financial instability.
Reason (R): Article 352 provides this ground.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Financial instability is under Article 360.
Q93. Assertion (A): President’s Rule maximum duration is 3 years.
Reason (R): Extension beyond 1 year requires National Emergency.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Maximum 3 years with conditions.
Q94. Assertion (A): Financial Emergency has been proclaimed once in India.
Reason (R): It was during 1991 crisis.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Financial Emergency never proclaimed.
Q95. Assertion (A): 1975 Emergency was proclaimed due to war.
Reason (R): Article 352 allows proclamation on war grounds.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: 1975 Emergency was due to internal disturbance.
Q96. Assertion (A): Articles 14 & 19 can be suspended during Emergency.
Reason (R): Article 358 allows suspension of Article 19.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: B
Explanation: Article 19 suspended, Article 14 suspended under 359.
Q97. Assertion (A): Emergency provisions are part of basic structure.
Reason (R): Parliament cannot amend them.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Emergency provisions not part of basic structure.
Q98. Assertion (A): Lok Sabha can disapprove Emergency by simple majority.
Reason (R): Majority of total membership required.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: C
Explanation: Majority of total membership required.
Q99. Assertion (A): Emergency provisions are unique to the Indian Constitution.
Reason (R): No other constitution provides for them.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: C
Explanation: Emergency provisions exist in other constitutions (e.g., Germany, USA), but India’s scope is unique.
Q100. Assertion (A): 44th Amendment (1978) introduced safeguards against misuse of Emergency provisions.
Reason (R): It restricted grounds, protected Articles 20 & 21, and required Lok Sabha approval.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: 44th Amendment added safeguards to prevent authoritarian misuse.
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