Election System in India
The Election System in Indian Polity 150 MCQ master set provides comprehensive coverage of constitutional provisions, electoral laws, reforms, and case laws shaping India’s democratic framework. It spans Articles 324–329, the Representation of People Acts (1950 & 1951), the role of the Election Commission of India, State Election Commissions, electoral rolls, voting rights, VVPAT, NOTA, postal ballots, delimitation, disqualification, and anti‑defection law. The set also explores the Model Code of Conduct, landmark Supreme Court judgments, electoral reforms suggested by various committees, and the regulation of political parties, symbols, and electoral bonds. Designed for UPSC, SSC, PSC, and other competitive exams, these questions ensure syllabus completeness, strengthen conceptual clarity, and highlight the importance of free and fair elections in sustaining India’s democracy.
A) Article 323
B) Article 324
C) Article 325
D) None
✅ Correct: B
Explanation: Article 324 establishes the Election Commission.
Q2. Article 324 empowers ECI to:
A) Superintend, direct, and control elections
B) Conduct only Lok Sabha elections
C) Conduct only Presidential elections
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: ECI controls elections to Parliament, State Legislatures, President & VP.
Q3. The Election Commission of India is:
A) Constitutional body
B) Statutory body
C) Executive body
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: ECI is a constitutional body under Article 324.
Q4. Composition of ECI originally:
A) One Chief Election Commissioner
B) Two Commissioners
C) Three Commissioners
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Initially only CEC; later expanded.
Q5. Present composition of ECI:
A) CEC + 2 Election Commissioners
B) CEC only
C) CEC + 4 Commissioners
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Currently a 3‑member body.
Q6. Appointment of CEC & ECs is made by:
A) President of India
B) Prime Minister
C) Parliament
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Appointed by President.
Q7. Tenure of CEC & ECs:
A) 6 years or until age 65
B) 5 years or until age 60
C) 7 years or until age 70
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Tenure fixed at 6 years or age 65.
Q8. Removal of CEC is similar to:
A) Judge of Supreme Court
B) Governor
C) Prime Minister
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Removed like SC judge — by Parliament.
Q9. Removal of Election Commissioners:
A) By President on recommendation of CEC
B) By Parliament directly
C) By Supreme Court
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: ECs removed on CEC recommendation.
Q10. Article 325 provides:
A) No person excluded from electoral rolls on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex.
B) Reservation of seats
C) Tenure of ECI
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Article 325 ensures equality in electoral rolls.
Q11. Article 326 provides:
A) Adult suffrage
B) Reservation
C) Tenure
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Elections based on adult suffrage (18 years).
Q12. Article 327 empowers:
A) Parliament to make laws on elections
B) President to conduct elections
C) Governor to supervise elections
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Parliament empowered to legislate.
Q13. Article 328 empowers:
A) State Legislature to make laws on elections
B) Parliament to legislate
C) President to appoint SEC
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: State Legislature empowered.
Q14. Article 329 bars:
A) Judicial interference in elections
B) Reservation
C) Tenure
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Courts barred except via election petitions.
Q15. Representation of People Act, 1950 deals with:
A) Allocation of seats, delimitation, electoral rolls
B) Conduct of elections
C) Disqualification
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: RPA 1950 covers allocation & rolls.
Q16. Representation of People Act, 1951 deals with:
A) Conduct of elections, qualifications, disqualifications
B) Allocation of seats
C) Electoral rolls
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: RPA 1951 covers conduct & disqualification.
Q17. Chief Election Commissioner’s status is equivalent to:
A) Supreme Court Judge
B) High Court Judge
C) Governor
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: CEC enjoys SC judge status.
Q18. ECI supervises elections to:
A) Lok Sabha
B) Rajya Sabha
C) State Legislatures
D) President & VP
✅ Correct: All of the above
Explanation: ECI supervises all major elections.
Q19. Voting age reduced from 21 to 18 by:
A) 61st Amendment Act, 1988
B) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
C) 73rd Amendment Act, 1992
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: 61st Amendment lowered voting age.
Q20. Electoral rolls prepared by:
A) ECI
B) State Election Commission
C) Local bodies
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: ECI prepares electoral rolls.
Q21. Delimitation of constituencies done by:
A) Delimitation Commission
B) ECI
C) Parliament
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Delimitation Commission handles boundaries.
Q22. Delimitation Commission appointed by:
A) President
B) Prime Minister
C) Parliament
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: President appoints Delimitation Commission.
Q23. Model Code of Conduct issued by:
A) Election Commission of India
B) Parliament
C) Supreme Court
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: MCC issued by ECI.
Q24. NOTA option introduced in:
A) 2013
B) 2009
C) 2015
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Supreme Court directed NOTA in 2013.
Q25. VVPAT introduced in elections in:
A) 2013 (Nagaland by‑poll)
B) 2014 General Elections
C) 2019 General Elections
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: First used in 2013 Nagaland by‑poll.
Q26. Electoral Bonds scheme introduced in:
A) 2018
B) 2016
C) 2019
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Electoral Bonds introduced in 2018.
Q27. Anti‑defection law is under:
A) 10th Schedule
B) 11th Schedule
C) 12th Schedule
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: 10th Schedule deals with defection.
Q28. Disqualification on grounds of corrupt practices is under:
A) Representation of People Act, 1951
B) RPA 1950
C) Constitution directly
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: RPA 1951 provides disqualification.
Q29. Judicial review of elections allowed only via:
A) Election petitions
B) Supreme Court suo motu
C) President reference
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Judicial review only through petitions.
Q30. Election Commission ensures:
A) Free & fair elections
B) Transparency
C) Democratic legitimacy
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: ECI ensures integrity of electoral process.
Q31. Elections to Lok Sabha are conducted by:
A) Election Commission of India
B) State Election Commission
C) President
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: ECI conducts Lok Sabha elections.
Q32. Elections to Rajya Sabha are:
A) Direct
B) Indirect
C) Both
D) None
✅ Correct: B
Explanation: Rajya Sabha members elected indirectly by State Legislatures.
Q33. Elections to Legislative Assemblies are conducted by:
A) Election Commission of India
B) State Election Commission
C) Governor
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: ECI conducts State Assembly elections.
Q34. Elections to President of India are conducted by:
A) Election Commission of India
B) Parliament
C) Supreme Court
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: ECI supervises Presidential elections.
Q35. Elections to Vice President are conducted by:
A) Election Commission of India
B) Parliament
C) Supreme Court
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: ECI supervises Vice Presidential elections.
Q36. Electoral rolls are prepared under:
A) Representation of People Act, 1950
B) RPA 1951
C) Constitution directly
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: RPA 1950 governs electoral rolls.
Q37. Electoral rolls are revised:
A) Annually
B) Every 5 years
C) Every 10 years
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Rolls revised annually.
Q38. Voting age in India is:
A) 18 years
B) 21 years
C) 16 years
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: 61st Amendment lowered voting age to 18.
Q39. Postal ballot facility available to:
A) Service voters
B) Armed forces
C) Government employees on election duty
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Postal ballot for service voters & officials.
Q40. Proxy voting allowed for:
A) Armed forces personnel
B) Overseas Indians
C) Both
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Armed forces personnel allowed proxy voting.
Q41. Overseas Indians voting rights granted by:
A) Representation of People (Amendment) Act, 2010
B) RPA 1950
C) RPA 1951
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Amendment Act 2010 allowed NRIs to vote.
Q42. VVPAT stands for:
A) Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail
B) Voter Verified Poll Audit Trail
C) Voter Verification Paper Audit Trail
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: VVPAT ensures transparency.
Q43. VVPAT first used in India in:
A) 2013 Nagaland by‑poll
B) 2014 General Elections
C) 2019 General Elections
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: First used in 2013 Nagaland by‑poll.
Q44. NOTA option introduced in:
A) 2013
B) 2014
C) 2015
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Supreme Court directed NOTA in 2013.
Q45. NOTA stands for:
A) None of the Above
B) No Option to Agree
C) Not Officially Taken Account
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: NOTA allows voters to reject all candidates.
Q46. Elections to Panchayats are conducted by:
A) State Election Commission
B) Election Commission of India
C) Governor
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: SEC conducts Panchayat elections.
Q47. Elections to Municipalities are conducted by:
A) State Election Commission
B) Election Commission of India
C) Parliament
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: SEC conducts municipal elections.
Q48. Rajya Sabha members elected by:
A) State Legislative Assemblies
B) Direct voting
C) President
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Indirect election by State Legislatures.
Q49. President elected by:
A) Electoral College of MPs & MLAs
B) Direct voting
C) Parliament only
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Electoral College elects President.
Q50. Vice President elected by:
A) Electoral College of MPs
B) MPs & MLAs
C) Direct voting
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Vice President elected by MPs only.
Q51. Lok Sabha elections held every:
A) 5 years
B) 6 years
C) 4 years
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Lok Sabha tenure is 5 years.
Q52. Rajya Sabha elections held every:
A) 2 years for one‑third members
B) 5 years for all members
C) 6 years for all members
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: One‑third members retire every 2 years.
Q53. State Assembly elections held every:
A) 5 years
B) 6 years
C) 4 years
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Tenure of State Assembly is 5 years.
Q54. Electoral rolls prepared by:
A) ECI
B) SEC
C) Local bodies
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: ECI prepares electoral rolls.
Q55. Electors Photo Identity Card (EPIC) introduced in:
A) 1993
B) 1995
C) 1997
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: EPIC introduced in 1993.
Q56. First General Elections in India held in:
A) 1951‑52
B) 1950
C) 1955
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: First elections held in 1951‑52.
Q57. First Lok Sabha elections elected:
A) 489 members
B) 500 members
C) 520 members
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: 489 members elected in first Lok Sabha.
Q58. First voter in India recognized as:
A) Shyam Saran Negi
B) Sukumar Sen
C) T.N. Seshan
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Shyam Saran Negi was first voter.
Q59. First Chief Election Commissioner of India:
A) Sukumar Sen
B) T.N. Seshan
C) S.L. Shakdhar
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Sukumar Sen was first CEC.
Q60. First General Elections supervised by:
A) Sukumar Sen
B) T.N. Seshan
C) President
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Sukumar Sen supervised first elections.
Q61. Delimitation of constituencies is governed by:
A) Representation of People Act, 1950
B) RPA 1951
C) Constitution directly
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: RPA 1950 provides for delimitation.
Q62. Delimitation Commission is appointed by:
A) President of India
B) Prime Minister
C) Parliament
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: President appoints Delimitation Commission.
Q63. Delimitation Commission recommendations are:
A) Binding
B) Advisory
C) Optional
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Recommendations are binding.
Q64. Latest Delimitation in India carried out in:
A) 2002
B) 2008
C) 2010
D) None
✅ Correct: B
Explanation: Delimitation completed in 2008.
Q65. Representation of People Act, 1950 deals with:
A) Allocation of seats, delimitation, electoral rolls
B) Conduct of elections
C) Disqualification
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: RPA 1950 covers allocation & rolls.
Q66. Representation of People Act, 1951 deals with:
A) Conduct of elections, qualifications, disqualifications
B) Allocation of seats
C) Electoral rolls
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: RPA 1951 governs conduct & disqualification.
Q67. Qualification for Lok Sabha membership:
A) 25 years minimum age
B) 30 years minimum age
C) 21 years minimum age
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Minimum age 25 years.
Q68. Qualification for Rajya Sabha membership:
A) 30 years minimum age
B) 25 years minimum age
C) 21 years minimum age
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Minimum age 30 years.
Q69. Disqualification for corrupt practices is under:
A) RPA 1951
B) RPA 1950
C) Constitution directly
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: RPA 1951 provides disqualification.
Q70. Disqualification for conviction in certain offences:
A) RPA 1951
B) RPA 1950
C) Constitution directly
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: RPA 1951 governs conviction disqualification.
Q71. Disqualification for holding office of profit:
A) Constitution Article 102
B) RPA 1951
C) Both
D) None
✅ Correct: C
Explanation: Constitution & RPA cover office of profit.
Q72. Disqualification for unsound mind:
A) Constitution Article 102
B) RPA 1951
C) Both
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Constitution provides disqualification.
Q73. Disqualification for insolvency:
A) Constitution Article 102
B) RPA 1951
C) Both
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Insolvency disqualification under Constitution.
Q74. Disqualification for voluntary acquisition of foreign citizenship:
A) Constitution Article 102
B) RPA 1951
C) Both
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Constitution provides disqualification.
Q75. Anti‑defection law introduced by:
A) 52nd Amendment Act, 1985
B) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
C) 73rd Amendment Act, 1992
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: 52nd Amendment added 10th Schedule.
Q76. Anti‑defection law strengthened by:
A) 91st Amendment Act, 2003
B) 86th Amendment Act, 2002
C) 97th Amendment Act, 2011
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: 91st Amendment tightened provisions.
Q77. Disqualification under anti‑defection law decided by:
A) Speaker/Chairman
B) President
C) Supreme Court
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Speaker/Chairman decides disqualification.
Q78. Judicial review of Speaker’s decision allowed by:
A) Supreme Court
B) High Court
C) Both
D) None
✅ Correct: C
Explanation: Courts can review Speaker’s decision.
Q79. Grounds for disqualification under anti‑defection law:
A) Voluntarily giving up membership
B) Voting against party whip
C) Both
D) None
✅ Correct: C
Explanation: Both grounds apply.
Q80. Exemption under anti‑defection law:
A) Merger of parties with 2/3 members
B) Split in party with 1/3 members
C) Both
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Only merger with 2/3 members allowed.
Q81. Disqualification for conviction in heinous crimes:
A) RPA 1951
B) Constitution directly
C) Both
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: RPA 1951 governs conviction disqualification.
Q82. Disqualification for corrupt electoral practices:
A) RPA 1951
B) Constitution directly
C) Both
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: RPA 1951 covers corrupt practices.
Q83. Disqualification for failure to lodge election expenses:
A) RPA 1951
B) Constitution directly
C) Both
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: RPA 1951 mandates expense disclosure.
Q84. Disqualification for engaging in government contracts:
A) Constitution Article 102
B) RPA 1951
C) Both
D) None
✅ Correct: C
Explanation: Both cover office of profit situations.
Q85. Disqualification for promoting enmity between groups:
A) RPA 1951
B) Constitution directly
C) Both
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: RPA 1951 covers such offences.
Q86. Disqualification for electoral offences like booth capturing:
A) RPA 1951
B) Constitution directly
C) Both
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: RPA 1951 governs electoral offences.
Q87. Disqualification for corrupt use of religion in elections:
A) RPA 1951
B) Constitution directly
C) Both
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: RPA 1951 prohibits use of religion.
Q88. Disqualification for bribery in elections:
A) RPA 1951
B) Constitution directly
C) Both
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: RPA 1951 covers bribery.
Q89. Disqualification for undue influence in elections:
A) RPA 1951
B) Constitution directly
C) Both
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: RPA 1951 covers undue influence.
Q90. Anti‑defection law aims to:
A) Prevent political instability
B) Ensure party discipline
C) Strengthen democracy
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Law ensures stability & discipline.
Q91. Model Code of Conduct (MCC) is issued by:
A) Election Commission of India
B) Parliament
C) Supreme Court
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: MCC is issued by ECI to regulate political parties during elections.
Q92. MCC becomes operational from:
A) Date of announcement of elections
B) Date of polling
C) Date of counting
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: MCC enforced from announcement of elections.
Q93. MCC prohibits:
A) Use of government machinery for campaigning
B) Announcing new schemes
C) Misuse of official position
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: MCC ensures fair play.
Q94. Election expenses limit for Lok Sabha candidates is prescribed by:
A) Representation of People Act, 1951
B) RPA 1950
C) Constitution directly
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: RPA 1951 prescribes expenditure limits.
Q95. Disclosure of election expenses is mandatory under:
A) RPA 1951
B) RPA 1950
C) Constitution directly
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Candidates must submit expense accounts.
Q96. Electoral reforms introduced by T.N. Seshan include:
A) Strict enforcement of MCC
B) Use of EPIC
C) Transparency in elections
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Seshan strengthened ECI credibility.
Q97. Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) first used in:
A) 1982 Kerala by‑poll
B) 1985 Tamil Nadu elections
C) 1990 General Elections
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: First used in 1982 Kerala by‑poll.
Q98. Supreme Court case: Indira Nehru Gandhi vs Raj Narain (1975) relevance:
A) Judicial review of elections
B) Reservation of seats
C) Finance Commission
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Case upheld judicial review of elections.
Q99. Supreme Court case: Union of India vs Association for Democratic Reforms (2002) relevance:
A) Disclosure of candidate information
B) Reservation
C) Tenure
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Case mandated disclosure of criminal records, assets.
Q100. Supreme Court case: Lily Thomas vs Union of India (2013) relevance:
A) Immediate disqualification on conviction
B) Reservation
C) Tenure
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Case mandated immediate disqualification.
Q101. Supreme Court case: People’s Union for Civil Liberties vs Union of India (2003) relevance:
A) Introduction of NOTA
B) Reservation
C) Tenure
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Case introduced NOTA option.
Q102. Judicial review of elections is barred under:
A) Article 329
B) Article 324
C) Article 325
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Judicial review barred except via petitions.
Q103. Election petitions are filed in:
A) High Court
B) Supreme Court
C) District Court
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Election petitions filed in High Court.
Q104. Appeal against High Court decision in election petition lies to:
A) Supreme Court
B) President
C) Parliament
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Appeal lies to Supreme Court.
Q105. Election petitions must be filed within:
A) 45 days of election result
B) 30 days
C) 60 days
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Must be filed within 45 days.
Q106. Electoral reforms suggested by Dinesh Goswami Committee (1990):
A) State funding of elections
B) Strengthening MCC
C) Reducing election expenses
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Committee suggested reforms.
Q107. Electoral reforms suggested by Indrajit Gupta Committee (1998):
A) Partial state funding of elections
B) Reservation
C) Tenure
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Committee recommended partial state funding.
Q108. Electoral reforms suggested by Law Commission (2015):
A) Ban on corporate donations
B) Strengthening transparency
C) Both
D) None
✅ Correct: C
Explanation: Law Commission suggested reforms.
Q109. Electoral reforms suggested by Vohra Committee (1993):
A) Criminalization of politics
B) Reservation
C) Tenure
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Committee highlighted criminalization.
Q110. Electoral reforms suggested by Tarkunde Committee (1974):
A) Proportional representation
B) State funding
C) Both
D) None
✅ Correct: C
Explanation: Committee suggested PR & funding.
Q111. Judicial review ensures:
A) Accountability
B) Transparency
C) Rule of law
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Judicial review strengthens democracy.
Q112. MCC ensures:
A) Level playing field
B) Fair elections
C) Transparency
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: MCC ensures fairness.
Q113. Electoral reforms aim to:
A) Reduce corruption
B) Strengthen democracy
C) Increase participation
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Reforms aim at clean elections.
Q114. Case law: Kuldip Nayar vs Union of India (2006) relevance:
A) Rajya Sabha elections
B) Reservation
C) Tenure
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Case upheld open ballot in Rajya Sabha.
Q115. Case law: PUCL vs Union of India (2013) relevance:
A) Right to negative voting (NOTA)
B) Reservation
C) Tenure
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Case upheld NOTA.
Q116. Case law: Union of India vs ADR (2002) relevance:
A) Disclosure of candidate info
B) Reservation
C) Tenure
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Case mandated disclosure.
Q117. Case law: Lily Thomas vs Union of India (2013) relevance:
A) Immediate disqualification on conviction
B) Reservation
C) Tenure
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Case upheld disqualification.
Q118. Case law: Indira Gandhi vs Raj Narain (1975) relevance:
A) Judicial review of elections
B) Reservation
C) Tenure
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Case upheld judicial review.
Q119. Case law: Kuldip Nayar vs Union of India relevance:
A) Rajya Sabha elections
B) Reservation
C) Tenure
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Case upheld open ballot system.
Q120. Election laws in India aim to:
A) Ensure free & fair elections
B) Prevent corrupt practices
C) Strengthen democracy
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Laws ensure integrity of electoral process.
Q121. Assertion (A): Political parties must register with ECI.
Reason (R): Registration governed by Section 29A of RPA 1951.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Section 29A governs party registration.
Q122. Recognition of national parties is decided by:
A) Election Commission of India
B) Parliament
C) Supreme Court
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: ECI recognizes national/state parties.
Q123. Criteria for national party recognition includes:
A) 6% votes in 4 states + 4 Lok Sabha seats
B) 10% votes nationwide
C) 25 seats in Lok Sabha
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: ECI criteria for national party.
Q124. Criteria for state party recognition includes:
A) 6% votes in state + 2 seats
B) 10% votes in state
C) 5 seats in Assembly
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: ECI criteria for state party.
Q125. Party symbols are allotted by:
A) Election Commission of India
B) Parliament
C) President
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: ECI allots party symbols.
Q126. Electoral bonds introduced in:
A) 2018
B) 2016
C) 2019
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Electoral bonds scheme launched in 2018.
Q127. Electoral bonds issued by:
A) State Bank of India
B) Reserve Bank of India
C) Ministry of Finance
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: SBI authorized to issue bonds.
Q128. Electoral bonds validity period:
A) 15 days
B) 30 days
C) 45 days
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Bonds valid for 15 days.
Q129. Electoral bonds can be encashed by:
A) Recognized political parties
B) Any individual
C) NGOs
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Only recognized parties can encash.
Q130. Assertion (A): Electoral bonds aim to bring transparency.
Reason (R): Donor identity remains anonymous.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: B
Explanation: Bonds aim transparency but anonymity remains.
Q131. Political parties must submit annual audit reports to:
A) Election Commission of India
B) Parliament
C) Supreme Court
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Parties submit reports to ECI.
Q132. Political parties enjoy tax exemption under:
A) Income Tax Act, 1961
B) RPA 1951
C) Constitution directly
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: IT Act provides exemption.
Q133. Party system in India is described as:
A) Multi‑party system
B) Two‑party system
C) One‑party system
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: India follows multi‑party system.
Q134. Recognition of parties ensures:
A) Allotment of symbols
B) Access to electoral rolls
C) Free airtime on media
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Recognition provides privileges.
Q135. Case law: Sadiq Ali vs ECI relevance:
A) Party symbol disputes
B) Reservation
C) Tenure
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Case upheld ECI’s power on symbols.
Q136. Case law: Kanhiya Lal Omar vs R.K. Trivedi relevance:
A) Party registration
B) Reservation
C) Tenure
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Case upheld ECI’s power on registration.
Q137. Case law: Union of India vs ADR relevance:
A) Disclosure of candidate info
B) Reservation
C) Tenure
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Case mandated disclosure.
Q138. Assertion (A): Political parties are essential for democracy.
Reason (R): They provide choice to voters.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Parties provide choice & representation.
Q139. Assertion (A): Party symbols ensure voter recognition.
Reason (R): Many voters are illiterate.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Symbols aid recognition.
Q140. Assertion (A): Electoral bonds criticized for lack of transparency.
Reason (R): Donor identity hidden from public.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Bonds criticized for anonymity.
Q141. Political parties must file contribution reports above:
A) ₹20,000
B) ₹50,000
C) ₹1,00,000
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Contributions above ₹20,000 must be reported.
Q142. Political parties registered under:
A) Section 29A of RPA 1951
B) RPA 1950
C) Constitution directly
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Section 29A governs registration.
Q143. Party system in India characterized by:
A) Coalition politics
B) Regional parties
C) Both
D) None
✅ Correct: C
Explanation: India has coalition & regional parties.
Q144. Assertion (A): ECI ensures free & fair elections.
Reason (R): It is independent constitutional body.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: ECI independent under Article 324.
Q145. Assertion (A): Party funding needs regulation.
Reason (R): To prevent corruption & undue influence.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Regulation ensures clean politics.
Q146. Assertion (A): Electoral reforms aim to strengthen democracy.
Reason (R): They reduce corruption & increase participation.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Reforms strengthen democracy.
Q147. Assertion (A): Political parties must maintain internal democracy.
Reason (R): It ensures accountability & representation.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Internal democracy vital for accountability.
Q148. Assertion (A): Party system in India reflects diversity.
Reason (R): Regional parties represent local aspirations.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Regional parties reflect diversity.
Q149. Assertion (A): Electoral bonds scheme benefits ruling parties more.
Reason (R): Donors prefer anonymity with ruling party.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Critics argue scheme favors ruling parties.
Q150. Assertion (A): Elections are cornerstone of democracy.
Reason (R): They ensure people’s participation in governance.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Elections ensure legitimacy & participation.
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