The Constitutional Amendments
The Constitutional Amendments in Indian Polity 125 MCQ master set offers comprehensive coverage of Article 368, the amendment procedure, and the evolution of India’s constitutional framework. It spans major amendments from the 1st to the 105th, landmark case laws such as Golaknath, Kesavananda Bharati, Minerva Mills, and Indra Sawhney, and the development of the Basic Structure Doctrine. The set also includes amendments introducing Panchayati Raj, Municipalities, Fundamental Duties, GST, EWS reservation, and cooperative societies, along with federal provisions requiring state ratification. Assertion–Reason and analytical MCQs strengthen conceptual clarity, while historical context ensures exam authenticity. Designed for UPSC, SSC, PSC, and other competitive exams, this master set guarantees syllabus completeness, transparency, and deployment‑ready content for students and educators.
A) Article 368
B) Article 352
C) Article 356
D) Article 360
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Article 368 outlines the procedure for amending the Constitution.
Q2. Article 368 is part of which Part of the Constitution?
A) Part XX
B) Part XVIII
C) Part XIX
D) Part XXI
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Part XX deals with constitutional amendments.
Q3. Which type of majority is required for most constitutional amendments?
A) Special majority
B) Simple majority
C) Absolute majority
D) Effective majority
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Most amendments require a special majority of Parliament.
Q4. Amendments requiring ratification by states involve:
A) Federal provisions
B) Directive Principles
C) Fundamental Duties
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Amendments affecting federal structure need ratification by half the states.
Q5. Which of the following does NOT require state ratification?
A) Amendment affecting Union–State relations
B) Amendment to representation of states in Parliament
C) Amendment to Fundamental Rights
D) Amendment to election of President
✅ Correct: C
Explanation: Fundamental Rights amendments do not require state ratification.
Q6. Which amendment introduced the procedure for constitutional amendment?
A) 1st Amendment
B) 24th Amendment
C) Original Constitution
D) None
✅ Correct: C
Explanation: Procedure was part of the original Constitution.
Q7. Which of the following is NOT a method of constitutional amendment under Article 368?
A) By simple majority
B) By special majority
C) By special majority with state ratification
D) By referendum
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Referendum is not used in India.
Q8. Which amendment clarified Parliament’s power to amend Fundamental Rights?
A) 24th Amendment
B) 42nd Amendment
C) 44th Amendment
D) 52nd Amendment
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: 24th Amendment restored Parliament’s power post Golaknath case.
Q9. Which amendment added the words “Secular” and “Socialist” to the Preamble?
A) 42nd Amendment
B) 44th Amendment
C) 24th Amendment
D) 1st Amendment
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: 42nd Amendment added these words.
Q10. Which amendment reduced the voting age from 21 to 18?
A) 61st Amendment
B) 42nd Amendment
C) 44th Amendment
D) 86th Amendment
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: 61st Amendment lowered voting age.
Q11. Which amendment introduced anti-defection provisions?
A) 52nd Amendment
B) 44th Amendment
C) 86th Amendment
D) 73rd Amendment
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: 52nd Amendment added Tenth Schedule.
Q12. Which amendment made education a Fundamental Right?
A) 86th Amendment
B) 42nd Amendment
C) 44th Amendment
D) 61st Amendment
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: 86th Amendment made education a right under Article 21A.
Q13. Which amendment introduced Panchayati Raj in the Constitution?
A) 73rd Amendment
B) 74th Amendment
C) 42nd Amendment
D) 86th Amendment
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: 73rd Amendment added Part IX.
Q14. Which amendment introduced Municipalities in the Constitution?
A) 74th Amendment
B) 73rd Amendment
C) 42nd Amendment
D) 86th Amendment
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: 74th Amendment added Part IXA.
Q15. Which amendment introduced GST in India?
A) 101st Amendment
B) 100th Amendment
C) 97th Amendment
D) 86th Amendment
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: 101st Amendment introduced GST.
Q16. Which amendment gave constitutional status to cooperative societies?
A) 97th Amendment
B) 86th Amendment
C) 74th Amendment
D) 52nd Amendment
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: 97th Amendment added Part IXB.
Q17. Which amendment restored judicial review and limited Emergency powers?
A) 44th Amendment
B) 42nd Amendment
C) 24th Amendment
D) 52nd Amendment
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: 44th Amendment reversed excesses of 42nd Amendment.
Q18. Which amendment is known as the “Mini Constitution”?
A) 42nd Amendment
B) 44th Amendment
C) 24th Amendment
D) 73rd Amendment
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: 42nd Amendment made sweeping changes.
Q19. Which amendment added Fundamental Duties?
A) 42nd Amendment
B) 44th Amendment
C) 24th Amendment
D) 73rd Amendment
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: 42nd Amendment added Article 51A.
Q20. Which amendment repealed the Right to Property as a Fundamental Right?
A) 44th Amendment
B) 42nd Amendment
C) 24th Amendment
D) 73rd Amendment
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: 44th Amendment moved it to legal right under Article 300A.
Q21. Which amendment ratified the India–Bangladesh land boundary agreement?
A) 100th Amendment
B) 101st Amendment
C) 97th Amendment
D) 86th Amendment
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: 100th Amendment ratified the agreement.
Q22. Which amendment clarified reservation for economically weaker sections (EWS)?
A) 103rd Amendment
B) 101st Amendment
C) 97th Amendment
D) 86th Amendment
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: 103rd Amendment added EWS quota.
Q23. Which amendment extended SC/ST reservation in legislatures?
A) 104th Amendment
B) 103rd Amendment
C) 101st Amendment
D) 97th Amendment
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: 104th Amendment extended reservation.
Q24. Which amendment restored powers of Election Commission in disqualification matters?
A) 44th Amendment
B) 52nd Amendment
C) 61st Amendment
D) 86th Amendment
✅ Correct: B
Explanation: 52nd Amendment gave EC authority under Tenth Schedule.
Q25. Which amendment clarified OBC reservation in state lists?
A) 105th Amendment
B) 103rd Amendment
C) 101st Amendment
D) 97th Amendment
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: 105th Amendment clarified state power on OBC lists.
Q26. The 1st Constitutional Amendment (1951) dealt with:
A) Land reforms & restrictions on Fundamental Rights
B) Panchayati Raj
C) Anti-defection
D) GST
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: 1st Amendment curtailed freedom of speech, added Ninth Schedule.
Q27. The 7th Amendment (1956) reorganized:
A) States & Union Territories
B) Fundamental Rights
C) Directive Principles
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: 7th Amendment reorganized states and UTs.
Q28. The 24th Amendment (1971) clarified:
A) Parliament’s power to amend Fundamental Rights
B) Judicial review
C) Panchayati Raj
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Restored Parliament’s amending power post Golaknath case.
Q29. The 25th Amendment (1971) curtailed:
A) Right to property
B) Freedom of speech
C) Judicial review
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Restricted property rights, gave primacy to DPSPs.
Q30. The 31st Amendment (1973) increased Lok Sabha seats to:
A) 545
B) 552
C) 500
D) None
✅ Correct: B
Explanation: Lok Sabha strength raised to 552.
Q31. The 36th Amendment (1975) made:
A) Sikkim a full state
B) Goa a state
C) Mizoram a state
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Sikkim became 22nd state.
Q32. The 38th Amendment (1975) provided:
A) Immunity to President’s proclamation of Emergency
B) Panchayati Raj
C) Cooperative societies
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Proclamation of Emergency made non-justiciable.
Q33. The 39th Amendment (1975) placed election disputes of President/PM under:
A) Special tribunal
B) Supreme Court
C) Parliament
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Election disputes removed from judiciary.
Q34. The 42nd Amendment (1976) is called:
A) Mini Constitution
B) Magna Carta
C) Fundamental Amendment
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: 42nd Amendment made sweeping changes.
Q35. The 42nd Amendment added words to Preamble:
A) Socialist, Secular, Integrity
B) Democratic, Republic
C) Justice, Liberty
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Added Socialist, Secular, Integrity.
Q36. The 42nd Amendment added Fundamental Duties under:
A) Article 51A
B) Article 21A
C) Article 19
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Fundamental Duties introduced.
Q37. The 42nd Amendment curtailed:
A) Judicial review
B) Parliament’s power
C) Governor’s power
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Judicial review restricted.
Q38. The 42nd Amendment extended Lok Sabha & State Assemblies tenure to:
A) 6 years
B) 5 years
C) 7 years
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Tenure extended to 6 years.
Q39. The 43rd Amendment (1977) repealed provisions of:
A) 42nd Amendment
B) 24th Amendment
C) 25th Amendment
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Repealed authoritarian provisions of 42nd.
Q40. The 44th Amendment (1978) restored:
A) Judicial review
B) Tenure of Lok Sabha to 5 years
C) Protection of Articles 20 & 21
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Restored democracy, reversed 42nd excesses.
Q41. The 44th Amendment shifted Right to Property to:
A) Legal right under Article 300A
B) Fundamental Right
C) Directive Principle
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Property made legal right.
Q42. The 44th Amendment required Emergency approval by:
A) Lok Sabha majority
B) Rajya Sabha majority
C) President alone
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Lok Sabha majority required.
Q43. The 44th Amendment restricted grounds for National Emergency to:
A) War, external aggression, armed rebellion
B) Internal disturbance
C) Financial instability
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Internal disturbance removed.
Q44. The 44th Amendment protected Fundamental Rights under:
A) Articles 20 & 21
B) Articles 14 & 19
C) Articles 32 & 226
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Articles 20 & 21 cannot be suspended.
Q45. The 44th Amendment restored tenure of Lok Sabha/Assemblies to:
A) 5 years
B) 6 years
C) 7 years
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Tenure restored to 5 years.
Q46. The 44th Amendment repealed provision giving primacy to:
A) Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights
B) Fundamental Rights over DPSPs
C) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Restored balance between rights & DPSPs.
Q47. The 44th Amendment restored power of judiciary in:
A) Judicial review of constitutional amendments
B) Judicial review of Emergency proclamations
C) Both
D) None
✅ Correct: C
Explanation: Restored judicial review powers.
Q48. The 44th Amendment repealed provision extending President’s Rule duration to:
A) 3 years
B) 5 years
C) Unlimited
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Restricted misuse of Article 356.
Q49. The 44th Amendment repealed provision extending National Emergency duration to:
A) Unlimited
B) 3 years
C) 5 years
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Restricted indefinite continuation.
Q50. The 44th Amendment restored power of High Courts under:
A) Article 226
B) Article 32
C) Article 368
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Restored writ jurisdiction of High Courts.
Q51. The 52nd Amendment (1985) introduced:
A) Anti-defection law
B) Panchayati Raj
C) Fundamental Duties
D) GST
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Added Tenth Schedule to curb defections.
Q52. The 61st Amendment (1989) reduced voting age to:
A) 18 years
B) 21 years
C) 20 years
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Lowered voting age from 21 to 18.
Q53. The 69th Amendment (1991) gave Delhi status of:
A) National Capital Territory
B) Union Territory
C) State
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Created NCT of Delhi with special provisions.
Q54. The 73rd Amendment (1992) introduced:
A) Panchayati Raj system
B) Municipalities
C) Cooperative societies
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Added Part IX for Panchayati Raj.
Q55. The 74th Amendment (1992) introduced:
A) Municipalities
B) Panchayati Raj
C) Cooperative societies
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Added Part IXA for municipalities.
Q56. The 86th Amendment (2002) made education:
A) Fundamental Right under Article 21A
B) Directive Principle
C) Legal Right
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Introduced Article 21A for free & compulsory education.
Q57. The 91st Amendment (2003) limited size of:
A) Council of Ministers
B) Lok Sabha
C) Rajya Sabha
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Limited Council of Ministers to 15% of House strength.
Q58. The 92nd Amendment (2003) added languages to:
A) Eighth Schedule
B) Ninth Schedule
C) Tenth Schedule
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Added Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, Santhali.
Q59. The 93rd Amendment (2005) provided reservation for:
A) OBCs in private educational institutions
B) SC/ST in legislatures
C) Women in Panchayats
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Reservation in private institutions.
Q60. The 97th Amendment (2011) gave constitutional status to:
A) Cooperative societies
B) Panchayati Raj
C) Municipalities
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Added Part IXB for cooperatives.
Q61. The 100th Amendment (2015) ratified:
A) India–Bangladesh Land Boundary Agreement
B) GST
C) Cooperative societies
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Ratified land boundary agreement.
Q62. The 101st Amendment (2016) introduced:
A) GST
B) Cooperative societies
C) Panchayati Raj
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Introduced Goods and Services Tax.
Q63. The 102nd Amendment (2018) gave constitutional status to:
A) National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC)
B) Cooperative societies
C) Panchayati Raj
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: NCBC made constitutional body.
Q64. The 103rd Amendment (2019) introduced:
A) 10% reservation for EWS
B) GST
C) Cooperative societies
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Provided reservation for economically weaker sections.
Q65. The 104th Amendment (2020) extended reservation for:
A) SC/ST in legislatures
B) OBCs in Parliament
C) Women in Panchayats
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Extended SC/ST reservation for 10 years.
Q66. The 104th Amendment abolished reservation for:
A) Anglo-Indians in legislatures
B) SC/ST in Parliament
C) OBCs in Rajya Sabha
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Ended Anglo-Indian reservation in Lok Sabha/Assemblies.
Q67. The 105th Amendment (2021) restored power of:
A) States to identify OBCs
B) Centre to identify SC/ST
C) Judiciary to review amendments
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Restored state power to identify OBCs.
Q68. The 52nd Amendment added which Schedule?
A) Tenth Schedule
B) Ninth Schedule
C) Eighth Schedule
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Added Tenth Schedule for anti-defection.
Q69. The 61st Amendment modified which Article?
A) Article 326
B) Article 21A
C) Article 368
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Article 326 lowered voting age.
Q70. The 73rd Amendment added which Schedule?
A) Eleventh Schedule
B) Twelfth Schedule
C) Ninth Schedule
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Eleventh Schedule lists Panchayat subjects.
Q71. The 74th Amendment added which Schedule?
A) Twelfth Schedule
B) Eleventh Schedule
C) Ninth Schedule
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Twelfth Schedule lists municipal subjects.
Q72. The 86th Amendment modified which Article?
A) Article 21A
B) Article 326
C) Article 368
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Introduced Article 21A for education.
Q73. The 91st Amendment modified which Schedule?
A) Tenth Schedule
B) Ninth Schedule
C) Eleventh Schedule
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Strengthened anti-defection provisions.
Q74. The 92nd Amendment increased languages in Eighth Schedule to:
A) 22
B) 20
C) 18
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Added 4 languages, total 22.
Q75. The 103rd Amendment modified which Articles?
A) Articles 15 & 16
B) Articles 21 & 32
C) Articles 368 & 326
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Added EWS reservation under Articles 15 & 16.
Q76. Golaknath vs State of Punjab (1967) held that:
A) Parliament cannot amend Fundamental Rights
B) Parliament has unlimited power
C) Judicial review barred
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: SC ruled Parliament cannot amend Fundamental Rights.
Q77. Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) established:
A) Basic Structure Doctrine
B) Unlimited amending power
C) Judicial review barred
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Landmark case establishing basic structure doctrine.
Q78. Minerva Mills case (1980) held that:
A) Limited Parliament’s amending power
B) Strengthened DPSPs over Fundamental Rights
C) Judicial review barred
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: SC restricted Parliament’s power to amend.
Q79. Waman Rao case (1981) clarified:
A) Amendments before 24 April 1973 valid
B) Amendments after 1973 subject to basic structure
C) Both A & B
D) None
✅ Correct: C
Explanation: SC distinguished amendments before/after Kesavananda.
Q80. Indira Gandhi vs Raj Narain case (1975) relevance:
A) Judicial review of election disputes
B) Triggered 39th Amendment
C) Both A & B
D) None
✅ Correct: C
Explanation: Case led to 39th Amendment restricting judicial review.
Q81. Basic Structure Doctrine includes:
A) Supremacy of Constitution
B) Rule of law
C) Judicial review
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: All are part of basic structure.
Q82. Basic Structure Doctrine excludes:
A) Right to property
B) Federalism
C) Secularism
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Right to property not part of basic structure.
Q83. Which amendment attempted to nullify Kesavananda Bharati case?
A) 42nd Amendment
B) 44th Amendment
C) 24th Amendment
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: 42nd Amendment tried to give unlimited power.
Q84. Which case restored judicial review after 42nd Amendment?
A) Minerva Mills (1980)
B) Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
C) Golaknath (1967)
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Minerva Mills restored judicial review.
Q85. Which case upheld primacy of DPSPs over Fundamental Rights?
A) Champakam Dorairajan (1951)
B) Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
C) Minerva Mills (1980)
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Champakam case led to 1st Amendment.
Q86. Which case clarified Ninth Schedule immunity?
A) I.R. Coelho vs State of Tamil Nadu (2007)
B) Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
C) Golaknath (1967)
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: SC held Ninth Schedule laws subject to basic structure.
Q87. Which case upheld reservation for OBCs?
A) Indra Sawhney (1992)
B) Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
C) Minerva Mills (1980)
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Indra Sawhney upheld 27% OBC reservation.
Q88. Which case upheld 103rd Amendment (EWS reservation)?
A) Janhit Abhiyan vs Union of India (2022)
B) Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
C) Minerva Mills (1980)
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: SC upheld EWS reservation.
Q89. Which case upheld 105th Amendment restoring state power on OBC lists?
A) Maratha Reservation case (2021)
B) Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
C) Minerva Mills (1980)
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: SC clarified states’ power post 105th Amendment.
Q90. Assertion (A): Basic Structure Doctrine limits Parliament’s amending power.
Reason (R): Parliament cannot alter essential features of Constitution.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Basic Structure Doctrine restricts Parliament’s power.
Q91. Assertion (A): Constitutional amendments can be initiated only in Parliament.
Reason (R): State legislatures cannot initiate amendments.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Amendments can only be initiated in Parliament.
Q92. Assertion (A): Simple majority is sufficient for all amendments.
Reason (R): Article 368 requires only simple majority.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Most amendments require special majority.
Q93. Assertion (A): Amendments affecting federal provisions require state ratification.
Reason (R): At least half of the states must approve.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Federal amendments need ratification by half the states.
Q94. Assertion (A): Constitutional amendments are ordinary laws.
Reason (R): They can be passed by simple majority.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Amendments are not ordinary laws.
Q95. Assertion (A): Parliament has unlimited power to amend Constitution.
Reason (R): Article 368 gives absolute power.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Basic Structure Doctrine limits Parliament’s power.
Q96. Assertion (A): Constitutional amendments can change the basic structure.
Reason (R): Kesavananda Bharati case allows it.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Basic structure cannot be altered.
Q97. Assertion (A): Ninth Schedule laws are immune from judicial review.
Reason (R): Parliament can place any law in Ninth Schedule.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: I.R. Coelho case made Ninth Schedule subject to review.
Q98. Assertion (A): Constitutional amendments require Presidential assent.
Reason (R): President cannot withhold assent.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: President must give assent.
Q99. Assertion (A): Constitutional amendments can be challenged in court.
Reason (R): Judicial review applies to amendments violating basic structure.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Amendments violating basic structure can be struck down.
Q100. Assertion (A): Directive Principles cannot be amended.
Reason (R): They are permanent provisions.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: DPSPs can be amended.
Q101. Assertion (A): Fundamental Duties were added by 42nd Amendment.
Reason (R): They are enforceable by courts.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: C
Explanation: Duties are not directly enforceable.
Q102. Assertion (A): 97th Amendment gave constitutional status to cooperatives.
Reason (R): Added Part IXB and Article 43B.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: 97th Amendment strengthened cooperatives.
Q103. Assertion (A): 101st Amendment introduced GST.
Reason (R): Added Article 246A and GST Council.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: GST introduced with new Articles.
Q104. Assertion (A): 103rd Amendment introduced EWS reservation.
Reason (R): Added clauses to Articles 15 & 16.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: EWS reservation added.
Q105. Assertion (A): 105th Amendment restored state power on OBC lists.
Reason (R): States can identify socially & educationally backward classes.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Restored state authority.
Q106. Assertion (A): Constitutional amendments are part of constituent power.
Reason (R): Parliament exercises constituent power under Article 368.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Amendments are constituent power.
Q107. Assertion (A): Constitutional amendments can originate in Rajya Sabha.
Reason (R): Both Houses have equal power in amendment process.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Amendments can originate in either House.
Q108. Assertion (A): Constitutional amendments require quorum in Parliament.
Reason (R): Special majority is calculated on total membership.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: B
Explanation: Special majority is based on total membership, not quorum.
Q109. Assertion (A): Constitutional amendments can be initiated by President.
Reason (R): President has legislative initiative.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Only Parliament initiates amendments.
Q110. Assertion (A): Constitutional amendments are ordinary bills.
Reason (R): They follow same procedure as ordinary bills.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Amendments are special bills under Article 368.
Q111. Assertion (A): Constitutional amendments can be passed in joint sitting.
Reason (R): Article 368 allows joint sitting.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: No joint sitting for amendments.
Q112. Assertion (A): Constitutional amendments can be vetoed by President.
Reason (R): President has discretionary power.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: President must assent.
Q113. Assertion (A): Constitutional amendments can be repealed by Parliament.
Reason (R): Parliament has constituent power.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Parliament can repeal amendments.
Q114. Assertion (A): Constitutional amendments can be challenged in Supreme Court.
Reason (R): Judicial review applies to amendments violating basic structure.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: SC reviews amendments violating basic structure.
Q115. Assertion (A): Constitutional amendments require ratification by all states.
Reason (R): Federal amendments need unanimous approval.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Only half the states required.
Q116. Assertion (A): Constitutional amendments can be initiated by state legislatures.
Reason (R): States have concurrent power.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Only Parliament initiates amendments.
Q117. Assertion (A): Constitutional amendments can be passed by simple majority in both Houses.
Reason (R): Article 368 requires only simple majority.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Most amendments require special majority, not simple majority.
Q118. Assertion (A): Constitutional amendments are not subject to President’s veto.
Reason (R): President must give assent once passed by Parliament.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: President cannot withhold assent to amendments.
Q119. Assertion (A): Constitutional amendments can originate in either House of Parliament.
Reason (R): Both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha have equal powers in amendment process.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Amendments can be introduced in either House.
Q120. Assertion (A): Constitutional amendments require quorum in Parliament.
Reason (R): Special majority is calculated on total membership, not quorum present.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: B
Explanation: Special majority is based on total membership, not just quorum.
Q121. Assertion (A): Constitutional amendments cannot be passed in joint sitting.
Reason (R): Article 368 does not provide for joint sitting.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: No provision for joint sitting in constitutional amendments.
Q122. Assertion (A): Constitutional amendments are constituent power, not legislative power.
Reason (R): Parliament exercises constituent power under Article 368.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Amendments are constituent power distinct from ordinary legislation.
Q123. Assertion (A): Constitutional amendments can be repealed by Parliament.
Reason (R): Parliament has constituent power to amend or repeal.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Parliament can repeal amendments through another amendment.
Q124. Assertion (A): Constitutional amendments can be challenged in Supreme Court.
Reason (R): Judicial review applies if they violate basic structure.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: SC reviews amendments violating basic structure doctrine.
Q125. Assertion (A): Constitutional amendments require ratification by all states.
Reason (R): Federal amendments need unanimous approval.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Only half the states must ratify federal amendments, not all.
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