Citizenship
✅ A) Articles 5–11
B) Articles 12–35
C) Articles 36–51
D) Articles 52–78
Explanation: Citizenship provisions are in Articles 5–11, Part II.
Q2. Which Article defines citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution?
✅ A) Article 5
B) Article 6
C) Article 7
D) Article 11
Explanation: Article 5 defines citizenship at commencement.
Q3. Article 5 grants citizenship to persons domiciled in India if:
✅ A) Born in India, or parents born in India, or ordinarily resident for 5 years before commencement
B) Born abroad
C) Parents are foreigners
D) Resident for 1 year only
Explanation: Article 5 provides three conditions for citizenship.
Q4. Article 6 deals with citizenship of:
✅ A) Migrants from Pakistan
B) Refugees from Tibet
C) Persons of Indian origin abroad
D) Foreign diplomats
Explanation: Article 6 deals with migrants from Pakistan.
Q5. Article 7 deals with citizenship of:
✅ A) Persons who migrated to Pakistan but returned to India
B) Persons born abroad
C) Refugees from Sri Lanka
D) Foreign nationals
Explanation: Article 7 deals with returnees from Pakistan.
Q6. Article 8 deals with citizenship of:
✅ A) Persons of Indian origin residing outside India
B) Refugees in India
C) Foreign nationals in India
D) Diplomats
Explanation: Article 8 deals with Indians abroad.
Q7. Article 9 denies citizenship to:
✅ A) Persons voluntarily acquiring foreign citizenship
B) Persons born in India
C) Persons of Indian origin abroad
D) Refugees
Explanation: Article 9 denies citizenship if foreign citizenship acquired.
Q8. Article 10 provides that:
✅ A) Citizenship continues subject to law made by Parliament
B) Citizenship is permanent
C) Citizenship cannot be changed
D) Citizenship is hereditary
Explanation: Article 10 continues citizenship subject to law.
Q9. Article 11 empowers Parliament to:
✅ A) Make laws regarding acquisition and termination of citizenship
B) Grant citizenship only by birth
C) Restrict citizenship to residents
D) Amend the Preamble
Explanation: Article 11 empowers Parliament.
Q10. Citizenship provisions are contained in which Part of the Constitution?
✅ A) Part II
B) Part III
C) Part IV
D) Part V
Explanation: Citizenship provisions are in Part II.
Q11. How many Articles are there in Part II of the Constitution?
✅ A) 7 (Articles 5–11)
B) 10
C) 12
D) 15
Explanation: Part II has 7 Articles.
Q12. Citizenship at commencement was based on:
✅ A) Domicile, Birth, Descent, Residence
B) Religion
C) Language
D) Caste
Explanation: Based on domicile, birth, descent, residence.
Q13. Which Article deals with citizenship of persons migrating from Pakistan to India?
✅ A) Article 6
B) Article 7
C) Article 8
D) Article 9
Explanation: Article 6 deals with migrants from Pakistan.
Q14. Which Article deals with citizenship of persons migrating to Pakistan but returning to India?
✅ A) Article 7
B) Article 6
C) Article 8
D) Article 9
Explanation: Article 7 deals with returnees.
Q15. Which Article deals with citizenship of persons of Indian origin residing abroad?
✅ A) Article 8
B) Article 6
C) Article 7
D) Article 9
Explanation: Article 8 deals with Indians abroad.
Q16. Which Article denies citizenship to persons voluntarily acquiring foreign citizenship?
✅ A) Article 9
B) Article 6
C) Article 7
D) Article 8
Explanation: Article 9 denies citizenship.
Q17. Which Article continues citizenship subject to law made by Parliament?
✅ A) Article 10
B) Article 11
C) Article 5
D) Article 6
Explanation: Article 10 continues citizenship.
Q18. Which Article empowers Parliament to regulate citizenship?
✅ A) Article 11
B) Article 10
C) Article 9
D) Article 8
Explanation: Article 11 empowers Parliament.
Q19. Citizenship provisions were included in the Constitution because:
✅ A) India faced partition and migration issues
B) India wanted dual citizenship
C) India wanted to abolish citizenship
D) India wanted to restrict foreigners
Explanation: Partition and migration made citizenship provisions necessary.
Q20. Citizenship provisions in the Constitution are:
✅ A) Temporary in nature
B) Permanent
C) Justiciable
D) Enforceable
Explanation: Citizenship provisions at commencement were temporary.
Q21. Citizenship provisions at commencement applied to:
✅ A) Persons domiciled in India on 26 January 1950
B) Persons born abroad
C) Refugees only
D) Foreign nationals
Explanation: Applied to persons domiciled in India.
Q22. Citizenship provisions under Articles 5–11 are:
✅ A) Exhaustive for commencement only
B) Exhaustive for all times
C) Applicable to foreigners
D) Applicable to refugees only
Explanation: Articles 5–11 apply only at commencement.
Q23. Citizenship provisions under Articles 5–11 are supplemented by:
✅ A) Citizenship Act, 1955
B) Fundamental Rights
C) Directive Principles
D) Schedules
Explanation: Citizenship Act, 1955 supplements Articles 5–11.
Q24. Citizenship provisions under Articles 5–11 were necessary due to:
✅ A) Partition of India and Pakistan
B) Independence of India
C) Adoption of Fundamental Rights
D) Adoption of Directive Principles
Explanation: Partition made citizenship provisions necessary.
Q25. Citizenship provisions under Articles 5–11 are unique because:
✅ A) They applied only at commencement
B) They apply permanently
C) They apply to foreigners
D) They apply to refugees only
Explanation: Articles 5–11 applied only at commencement.
Q26. Citizenship in India is regulated primarily by:
✅ A) Citizenship Act, 1955
B) Constitution only
C) Parliament Rules
D) Supreme Court Guidelines
Explanation: Citizenship Act, 1955 regulates acquisition and termination.
Q27. Citizenship by birth is covered under which section of the Citizenship Act, 1955?
✅ A) Section 3
B) Section 4
C) Section 5
D) Section 6
Explanation: Section 3 covers citizenship by birth.
Q28. A person born in India between 26 Jan 1950 and 1 July 1987 is:
✅ A) Citizen by birth
B) Citizen by descent
C) Citizen by registration
D) Not a citizen
Explanation: Automatically citizen by birth.
Q29. A person born in India between 1 July 1987 and 3 Dec 2004 is citizen if:
✅ A) Either parent is citizen of India
B) Both parents are foreigners
C) Parents are diplomats
D) Parents are refugees
Explanation: One parent must be Indian citizen.
Q30. A person born in India on or after 3 Dec 2004 is citizen if:
✅ A) Both parents are citizens OR one is citizen and other not illegal migrant
B) Both parents are foreigners
C) Parents are diplomats
D) Parents are refugees
Explanation: Post‑2004 stricter rules apply.
Q31. Citizenship by descent is covered under which section?
✅ A) Section 4
B) Section 3
C) Section 5
D) Section 6
Explanation: Section 4 covers citizenship by descent.
Q32. A person born outside India between 26 Jan 1950 and 10 Dec 1992 is citizen if:
✅ A) Father was citizen of India
B) Mother was citizen only
C) Parents were foreigners
D) Parents were diplomats
Explanation: Citizenship by descent through father.
Q33. After 10 Dec 1992, citizenship by descent is valid if:
✅ A) Either parent is citizen of India
B) Only father is citizen
C) Only mother is citizen
D) Parents are foreigners
Explanation: Either parent being citizen is sufficient.
Q34. Citizenship by registration is covered under which section?
✅ A) Section 5
B) Section 3
C) Section 4
D) Section 6
Explanation: Section 5 covers registration.
Q35. Citizenship by registration can be acquired by:
✅ A) Persons of Indian origin, spouses of citizens, minor children, etc.
B) Diplomats only
C) Refugees only
D) Foreign nationals only
Explanation: Section 5 lists categories.
Q36. Citizenship by naturalization is covered under which section?
✅ A) Section 6
B) Section 5
C) Section 4
D) Section 3
Explanation: Section 6 covers naturalization.
Q37. Citizenship by naturalization requires residence in India for:
✅ A) 12 years (aggregate)
B) 5 years
C) 10 years
D) 15 years
Explanation: 12 years residence required.
Q38. Citizenship by incorporation of territory is covered under:
✅ A) Section 7
B) Section 6
C) Section 5
D) Section 4
Explanation: Section 7 covers incorporation.
Q39. Example of citizenship by incorporation of territory:
✅ A) Sikkim merger (1975)
B) Goa liberation (1961)
C) Pondicherry union (1962)
D) All of the above
Explanation: All examples of incorporation.
Q40. Citizenship by registration requires:
✅ A) Application to Central Government
B) Automatic grant
C) Approval by State Government
D) Approval by High Court
Explanation: Application to Central Government.
Q41. Citizenship by naturalization requires:
✅ A) Certificate from Central Government
B) Automatic grant
C) Approval by State Government
D) Approval by High Court
Explanation: Certificate issued by Central Government.
Q42. Citizenship by birth provisions were amended in:
✅ A) 1986 and 2003
B) 1976 and 1980
C) 1992 and 1995
D) 2005 and 2010
Explanation: Amended in 1986 and 2003.
Q43. Citizenship by descent provisions were amended in:
✅ A) 1992
B) 1986
C) 2003
D) 2019
Explanation: Amended in 1992.
Q44. Citizenship by registration includes:
✅ A) Persons of Indian origin residing in India for 7 years
B) Foreign diplomats
C) Refugees only
D) Illegal migrants
Explanation: Persons of Indian origin can register.
Q45. Citizenship by naturalization excludes:
✅ A) Illegal migrants
B) Refugees
C) Diplomats
D) Persons of Indian origin
Explanation: Illegal migrants excluded.
Q46. Citizenship by incorporation applies when:
✅ A) New territory becomes part of India
B) Person migrates from Pakistan
C) Person born abroad
D) Person acquires foreign citizenship
Explanation: Applies when territory incorporated.
Q47. Citizenship Act, 1955 provides for:
✅ A) Acquisition and termination of citizenship
B) Fundamental rights
C) Directive principles
D) Union‑State relations
Explanation: Act provides acquisition and termination.
Q48. Citizenship by naturalization requires knowledge of:
✅ A) Indian language
B) Foreign language
C) Religion
D) Customs
Explanation: Knowledge of Indian language required.
Q49. Citizenship by registration requires residence in India for:
✅ A) 7 years
B) 5 years
C) 10 years
D) 12 years
Explanation: 7 years residence required.
Q50. Citizenship by naturalization requires good character and:
✅ A) Intention to reside in India
B) Intention to reside abroad
C) Intention to renounce citizenship
D) Intention to migrate
Explanation: Requires good character and intention to reside in India.
Q51. Termination of citizenship in India is governed by:
✅ A) Citizenship Act, 1955
B) Constitution only
C) Supreme Court rules
D) State laws
Explanation: Citizenship Act, 1955 governs termination.
Q52. Citizenship can be lost by:
✅ A) Renunciation, Termination, Deprivation
B) Birth only
C) Registration only
D) Naturalization only
Explanation: Three modes of loss are recognized.
Q53. Renunciation of citizenship occurs when:
✅ A) Citizen voluntarily declares renunciation
B) Citizen is deprived by government
C) Citizen is terminated automatically
D) Citizen is born abroad
Explanation: Renunciation is voluntary.
Q54. Termination of citizenship occurs when:
✅ A) Citizen voluntarily acquires foreign citizenship
B) Citizen renounces
C) Citizen is deprived by government
D) Citizen is born abroad
Explanation: Termination occurs on acquiring foreign citizenship.
Q55. Deprivation of citizenship occurs when:
✅ A) Government cancels citizenship for fraud, disloyalty, etc.
B) Citizen voluntarily renounces
C) Citizen acquires foreign citizenship
D) Citizen is born abroad
Explanation: Deprivation is government action.
Q56. Renunciation of citizenship requires:
✅ A) Declaration to Central Government
B) Declaration to State Government
C) Declaration to High Court
D) Declaration to Supreme Court
Explanation: Declaration to Central Government.
Q57. Termination of citizenship is automatic when:
✅ A) Citizen voluntarily acquires foreign citizenship
B) Citizen renounces
C) Citizen deprived by government
D) Citizen is born abroad
Explanation: Automatic termination on acquiring foreign citizenship.
Q58. Deprivation of citizenship can occur if:
✅ A) Obtained by fraud
B) Disloyalty to Constitution
C) Imprisonment within 5 years of naturalization
D) All of the above
Explanation: All grounds valid.
Q59. Renunciation is not allowed during:
✅ A) War
B) Peace
C) Elections
D) Emergency
Explanation: Not allowed during war.
Q60. Termination applies to:
✅ A) Citizens acquiring foreign citizenship voluntarily
B) Citizens born abroad
C) Citizens by descent only
D) Citizens by registration only
Explanation: Applies to voluntary acquisition of foreign citizenship.
Q61. Deprivation applies to:
✅ A) Citizens by registration or naturalization
B) Citizens by birth only
C) Citizens by descent only
D) All citizens equally
Explanation: Applies to registration/naturalization.
Q62. Deprivation can occur if citizenship obtained by:
✅ A) Fraud or misrepresentation
B) Birth
C) Descent
D) Incorporation
Explanation: Fraud/misrepresentation grounds.
Q63. Deprivation can occur if citizen shows:
✅ A) Disloyalty to Constitution
B) Loyalty to Constitution
C) Residence in India
D) Knowledge of language
Explanation: Disloyalty is ground.
Q64. Deprivation can occur if citizen unlawfully traded with:
✅ A) Enemy during war
B) Allies during war
C) Neighbors during peace
D) States during elections
Explanation: Trading with enemy during war.
Q65. Deprivation can occur if citizen imprisoned within:
✅ A) 5 years of naturalization
B) 10 years of naturalization
C) 2 years of naturalization
D) 1 year of naturalization
Explanation: Imprisonment within 5 years.
Q66. Deprivation can occur if citizen ordinarily resident outside India for:
✅ A) 7 years continuously
B) 5 years
C) 10 years
D) 15 years
Explanation: 7 years continuous residence abroad.
Q67. Renunciation declaration by father affects:
✅ A) Minor children also
B) Only father
C) Only mother
D) No one else
Explanation: Minor children also lose citizenship.
Q68. Minor children affected by renunciation can resume citizenship after:
✅ A) Returning to India and declaring intention
B) Automatically after 18 years
C) Automatically after 21 years
D) Automatically after 25 years
Explanation: Can resume after majority by declaration.
Q69. Termination does not apply if:
✅ A) Citizen acquires foreign citizenship involuntarily
B) Citizen acquires voluntarily
C) Citizen renounces
D) Citizen deprived
Explanation: Involuntary acquisition not termination.
Q70. Deprivation is ordered by:
✅ A) Central Government
B) State Government
C) High Court
D) Supreme Court
Explanation: Central Government orders deprivation.
Q71. Renunciation declaration must be:
✅ A) Registered with Central Government
B) Registered with State Government
C) Registered with High Court
D) Registered with Supreme Court
Explanation: Registered with Central Government.
Q72. Termination applies to:
✅ A) All citizens acquiring foreign citizenship voluntarily
B) Citizens by birth only
C) Citizens by descent only
D) Citizens by incorporation only
Explanation: Applies to all voluntary acquisition.
Q73. Deprivation applies mainly to:
✅ A) Citizens by registration/naturalization
B) Citizens by birth
C) Citizens by descent
D) Citizens by incorporation
Explanation: Applies to registration/naturalization.
Q74. Renunciation is voluntary, termination is automatic, deprivation is:
✅ A) Involuntary by government order
B) Voluntary
C) Automatic
D) Judicial
Explanation: Deprivation is government order.
Q75. Grounds for deprivation include:
✅ A) Fraud, disloyalty, enemy trade, imprisonment, residence abroad
B) Birth abroad
C) Descent abroad
D) Incorporation
Explanation: All listed grounds valid.
Q76. The Citizenship Act was enacted in:
✅ A) 1955
B) 1949
C) 1950
D) 1962
Explanation: Citizenship Act was passed in 1955.
Q77. The Citizenship Act, 1955 originally provided for:
✅ A) Acquisition and termination of citizenship
B) Fundamental rights
C) Directive principles
D) Union‑State relations
Explanation: Act governs acquisition and termination.
Q78. The Citizenship Act, 1955 has been amended:
✅ A) Multiple times (1986, 1992, 2003, 2005, 2019)
B) Only once
C) Twice
D) Never
Explanation: Amended several times.
Q79. The 1986 Amendment restricted citizenship by:
✅ A) Birth — required one parent to be Indian citizen
B) Descent only
C) Registration only
D) Naturalization only
Explanation: 1986 restricted citizenship by birth.
Q80. The 1992 Amendment changed citizenship by:
✅ A) Descent — either parent can confer citizenship
B) Birth only
C) Registration only
D) Naturalization only
Explanation: 1992 allowed mother also to confer citizenship.
Q81. The 2003 Amendment introduced concept of:
✅ A) Illegal migrant
B) Dual citizenship
C) Refugee citizenship
D) Automatic citizenship
Explanation: 2003 introduced “illegal migrant”.
Q82. The 2003 Amendment also introduced:
✅ A) National Register of Citizens (NRC)
B) Overseas Citizenship of India (OCI)
C) Dual citizenship
D) Refugee rights
Explanation: NRC introduced in 2003.
Q83. The 2005 Amendment introduced:
✅ A) Overseas Citizenship of India (OCI)
B) Dual citizenship
C) Refugee citizenship
D) Automatic citizenship
Explanation: 2005 introduced OCI.
Q84. The 2019 Amendment (CAA) provides citizenship to:
✅ A) Hindus, Sikhs, Buddhists, Jains, Parsis, Christians from Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Pakistan
B) All migrants
C) Refugees from Tibet
D) Illegal migrants
Explanation: CAA 2019 provides to specified communities.
Q85. The 2019 Amendment excludes:
✅ A) Muslims from Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Pakistan
B) Hindus from Nepal
C) Christians from Sri Lanka
D) Buddhists from Bhutan
Explanation: Muslims excluded.
Q86. The 2019 Amendment reduces residence requirement from:
✅ A) 12 years to 5 years for specified communities
B) 10 years to 7 years
C) 15 years to 10 years
D) 20 years to 12 years
Explanation: Reduced to 5 years.
Q87. The Citizenship Act empowers:
✅ A) Central Government
B) State Government
C) High Court
D) Supreme Court
Explanation: Central Government empowered.
Q88. The Citizenship Act defines:
✅ A) Illegal migrant
B) Refugee
C) Foreigner
D) Diplomat
Explanation: Defines illegal migrant.
Q89. Illegal migrant means:
✅ A) Entered without valid documents or overstayed visa
B) Entered with valid documents
C) Born in India
D) Registered citizen
Explanation: Entered without valid documents or overstayed.
Q90. The 2003 Amendment made illegal migrants:
✅ A) Ineligible for citizenship by registration/naturalization
B) Eligible for citizenship
C) Automatic citizens
D) Refugees
Explanation: Ineligible for citizenship.
Q91. The 2005 Amendment allowed OCI to:
✅ A) Apply for lifelong visa, economic rights
B) Vote in elections
C) Hold constitutional offices
D) Contest elections
Explanation: OCI has limited rights.
Q92. OCI cardholders cannot:
✅ A) Vote, hold constitutional offices, buy agricultural land
B) Travel to India
C) Study in India
D) Work in India
Explanation: OCI has restrictions.
Q93. The 2019 Amendment applies to migrants who entered India before:
✅ A) 31 Dec 2014
B) 1 Jan 2010
C) 1 Jan 2015
D) 31 Dec 2019
Explanation: Cut‑off date is 31 Dec 2014.
Q94. The Citizenship Act, 1955 is unique because:
✅ A) It has been amended multiple times to reflect socio‑political changes
B) It is permanent and unamendable
C) It applies only to refugees
D) It applies only to diplomats
Explanation: Amended multiple times.
Q95. The 1986 Amendment was passed during:
✅ A) Rajiv Gandhi Government
B) Indira Gandhi Government
C) Vajpayee Government
D) Nehru Government
Explanation: 1986 under Rajiv Gandhi.
Q96. The 1992 Amendment was passed during:
✅ A) P.V. Narasimha Rao Government
B) Rajiv Gandhi Government
C) Vajpayee Government
D) Nehru Government
Explanation: 1992 under Narasimha Rao.
Q97. The 2003 Amendment was passed during:
✅ A) Vajpayee Government
B) Rajiv Gandhi Government
C) Nehru Government
D) Indira Gandhi Government
Explanation: 2003 under Vajpayee.
Q98. The 2005 Amendment was passed during:
✅ A) Manmohan Singh Government
B) Vajpayee Government
C) Rajiv Gandhi Government
D) Nehru Government
Explanation: 2005 under Manmohan Singh.
Q99. The 2019 Amendment was passed during:
✅ A) Narendra Modi Government
B) Manmohan Singh Government
C) Vajpayee Government
D) Rajiv Gandhi Government
Explanation: 2019 under Modi Government.
Q100. The Citizenship Act, 1955 reflects:
✅ A) Dynamic nature of citizenship in India
B) Permanent unchangeable rules
C) Only commencement provisions
D) Only refugee rights
Explanation: Reflects dynamic nature of citizenship.
Q101. Overseas Citizenship of India (OCI) was introduced by:
✅ A) Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2005
B) Citizenship Act, 1955
C) Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 1986
D) Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019
Explanation: OCI introduced in 2005.
Q102. OCI is available to:
✅ A) Persons of Indian origin except those who have ever been citizens of Pakistan or Bangladesh
B) All foreigners
C) Refugees only
D) Diplomats
Explanation: OCI excludes Pakistan/Bangladesh origin.
Q103. OCI cardholders enjoy:
✅ A) Lifelong visa for India
B) Voting rights
C) Eligibility for constitutional offices
D) Contesting elections
Explanation: OCI provides lifelong visa, but no political rights.
Q104. OCI cardholders cannot:
✅ A) Vote, hold constitutional offices, buy agricultural land
B) Travel to India
C) Study in India
D) Work in India
Explanation: Restrictions apply to political rights and land.
Q105. Persons of Indian Origin (PIO) scheme was merged with:
✅ A) OCI scheme in 2015
B) NRC
C) CAA 2019
D) Fundamental Rights
Explanation: PIO merged with OCI in 2015.
Q106. PIO cardholders were earlier entitled to:
✅ A) Visa‑free entry for 15 years
B) Voting rights
C) Contest elections
D) Hold constitutional offices
Explanation: PIO had limited visa benefits.
Q107. NRI stands for:
✅ A) Non‑Resident Indian
B) New Resident Indian
C) National Resident Indian
D) Non‑Registered Indian
Explanation: NRI = Non‑Resident Indian.
Q108. NRI is defined under:
✅ A) Income Tax Act, FEMA
B) Citizenship Act, 1955
C) Constitution
D) Directive Principles
Explanation: NRI defined under tax and FEMA laws.
Q109. NRI enjoys:
✅ A) Voting rights if physically present in India
B) Automatic voting rights abroad
C) OCI rights
D) PIO rights
Explanation: NRI can vote if present in India.
Q110. NRI cannot:
✅ A) Vote from abroad (no proxy voting yet)
B) Hold constitutional offices
C) Contest elections
D) Travel to India
Explanation: NRI voting requires presence in India.
Q111. OCI cardholders are eligible for:
✅ A) Economic rights like property (except agricultural land)
B) Voting rights
C) Constitutional offices
D) Contesting elections
Explanation: OCI has economic rights, not political.
Q112. PIO scheme was abolished in:
✅ A) 2015
B) 2003
C) 2005
D) 2019
Explanation: Abolished in 2015, merged with OCI.
Q113. NRI status depends on:
✅ A) Duration of stay abroad (182 days rule)
B) Citizenship Act
C) Constitution
D) Supreme Court ruling
Explanation: Defined by duration abroad.
Q114. OCI cardholders can:
✅ A) Study, work, own property (non‑agricultural)
B) Vote
C) Contest elections
D) Hold constitutional offices
Explanation: OCI allows study/work/property rights.
Q115. PIO cardholders earlier had:
✅ A) Visa‑free entry for 15 years
B) Voting rights
C) Contesting rights
D) Constitutional offices
Explanation: PIO had visa benefits only.
Q116. NRI is different from OCI because:
✅ A) NRI is citizen of India residing abroad, OCI is foreign citizen of Indian origin
B) Both are same
C) NRI has no rights
D) OCI has voting rights
Explanation: NRI = Indian citizen abroad; OCI = foreign citizen of Indian origin.
Q117. OCI cardholders are granted:
✅ A) Multiple entry, multi‑purpose lifelong visa
B) Voting rights
C) Constitutional offices
D) Agricultural land rights
Explanation: OCI provides lifelong visa.
Q118. NRI voting rights were upheld by:
✅ A) Representation of People Act, 1950
B) Citizenship Act, 1955
C) Constitution directly
D) Directive Principles
Explanation: Voting rights under Representation of People Act.
Q119. OCI cardholders are not eligible for:
✅ A) Government employment requiring security clearance
B) Private employment
C) Education in India
D) Property ownership
Explanation: OCI excluded from sensitive government jobs.
Q120. PIO scheme was merged with OCI to:
✅ A) Simplify and unify benefits for Indian diaspora
B) Grant voting rights abroad
C) Abolish NRI status
D) Provide dual citizenship
Explanation: Merger simplified diaspora benefits.
Q121. Which case dealt with citizenship in context of Berubari Union?
✅ A) Re Berubari Union (1960)
B) Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
C) Minerva Mills (1980)
D) S.R. Bommai (1994)
Explanation: Berubari Union case clarified citizenship and territorial cession.
Q122. Which case held that Parliament has power under Article 11 to regulate citizenship?
✅ A) Re Berubari Union (1960)
B) Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain (1975)
C) Minerva Mills (1980)
D) S.R. Bommai (1994)
Explanation: Berubari Union emphasized Parliament’s power.
Q123. Which case discussed domicile and citizenship in India?
✅ A) Pradeep Jain v. Union of India (1984)
B) Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
C) Minerva Mills (1980)
D) S.R. Bommai (1994)
Explanation: Pradeep Jain case discussed domicile and citizenship.
Q124. Which case held that citizenship is a matter of law, not fundamental right?
✅ A) State of U.P. v. Shah Mohammad (1969)
B) Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
C) Minerva Mills (1980)
D) S.R. Bommai (1994)
Explanation: Shah Mohammad case clarified citizenship is statutory.
Q125. Which case emphasized that citizenship provisions are subject to Parliament’s law?
✅ A) Re Berubari Union (1960)
B) Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
C) Minerva Mills (1980)
D) S.R. Bommai (1994)
Explanation: Berubari Union emphasized Parliament’s supremacy.
Q126. Which case discussed rights of Overseas Citizens of India?
✅ A) Sarbananda Sonowal v. Union of India (2005)
B) Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
C) Minerva Mills (1980)
D) S.R. Bommai (1994)
Explanation: Sonowal case discussed OCI and illegal migrants.
Q127. Which case upheld strict provisions against illegal migrants?
✅ A) Sarbananda Sonowal v. Union of India (2005)
B) Pradeep Jain v. Union of India (1984)
C) Shah Mohammad (1969)
D) Berubari Union (1960)
Explanation: Sonowal case upheld strict provisions.
Q128. Comparative citizenship: USA follows principle of:
✅ A) Jus soli (citizenship by birth on soil)
B) Jus sanguinis
C) Registration only
D) Naturalization only
Explanation: USA follows jus soli.
Q129. Comparative citizenship: India follows principle of:
✅ A) Restricted jus soli + jus sanguinis
B) Pure jus soli
C) Pure jus sanguinis
D) Dual citizenship
Explanation: India follows restricted jus soli + jus sanguinis.
Q130. Comparative citizenship: UK follows principle of:
✅ A) Jus sanguinis with conditions
B) Jus soli
C) Dual citizenship
D) Automatic citizenship
Explanation: UK follows jus sanguinis with conditions.
Q131. Comparative citizenship: France follows principle of:
✅ A) Jus soli and jus sanguinis combined
B) Jus soli only
C) Jus sanguinis only
D) Dual citizenship
Explanation: France combines both principles.
Q132. Comparative citizenship: Germany traditionally followed:
✅ A) Jus sanguinis
B) Jus soli
C) Dual citizenship
D) Automatic citizenship
Explanation: Germany traditionally followed jus sanguinis.
Q133. Comparative citizenship: Canada follows:
✅ A) Jus soli
B) Jus sanguinis
C) Dual citizenship only
D) Registration only
Explanation: Canada follows jus soli.
Q134. Comparative citizenship: Australia follows:
✅ A) Jus soli with restrictions
B) Jus sanguinis only
C) Dual citizenship only
D) Registration only
Explanation: Australia follows jus soli with restrictions.
Q135. Comparative citizenship: India does not allow:
✅ A) Dual citizenship
B) OCI voting rights
C) Automatic foreign citizenship
D) Refugee citizenship
Explanation: India does not allow dual citizenship.
Q136. Assertion (A): India does not allow dual citizenship.
Reason (R): Constitution provides only single citizenship.
✅ A) Both A and R true, R is correct explanation
B) Both A and R true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) A false, R true
Explanation: India allows only single citizenship.
Q137. Assertion (A): Citizenship Act, 1955 empowers Parliament.
Reason (R): Article 11 gives Parliament power to regulate citizenship.
✅ A) Both A and R true, R is correct explanation
Explanation: Parliament empowered under Article 11.
Q138. Assertion (A): OCI cardholders have voting rights.
Reason (R): They are treated as Indian citizens.
✅ A) Both A and R false
Explanation: OCI has no voting rights.
Q139. Assertion (A): NRI is Indian citizen residing abroad.
Reason (R): Defined under Income Tax Act and FEMA.
✅ A) Both A and R true, R is correct explanation
Explanation: NRI is Indian citizen abroad.
Q140. Assertion (A): Illegal migrants are eligible for citizenship by registration.
Reason (R): Citizenship Act permits it.
✅ A) Both A and R false
Explanation: Illegal migrants excluded.
Q141. Match the following:
1. Article 5 → Citizenship at commencement
2. Article 6 → Migrants from Pakistan
3. Article 7 → Returnees from Pakistan
4. Article 8 → Indians abroad
✅ Correct Match: 1‑Commencement, 2‑Migrants, 3‑Returnees, 4‑Indians abroad.
Q142. Match the following:
1. Section 3 → Citizenship by birth
2. Section 4 → Citizenship by descent
3. Section 5 → Citizenship by registration
4. Section 6 → Citizenship by naturalization
✅ Correct Match: 1‑Birth, 2‑Descent, 3‑Registration, 4‑Naturalization.
Q143. Assertion (A): Citizenship by incorporation applies when new territory joins India.
Reason (R): Section 7 covers incorporation.
✅ A) Both A and R true, R is correct explanation
Explanation: Section 7 covers incorporation.
Q144. Assertion (A): Renunciation of citizenship is voluntary.
Reason (R): Declaration made to Central Government.
✅ A) Both A and R true, R is correct explanation
Explanation: Renunciation is voluntary.
Q145. Assertion (A): Termination of citizenship is automatic.
Reason (R): Occurs when foreign citizenship acquired voluntarily.
✅ A) Both A and R true, R is correct explanation
Explanation: Termination is automatic.
Q146. Assertion (A): Deprivation of citizenship is government action.
Reason (R): Ordered by Central Government for fraud, disloyalty, etc.
✅ A) Both A and R true, R is correct explanation
Explanation: Deprivation is government action.
Q147. Assertion (A): OCI cardholders can buy agricultural land.
Reason (R): They have equal property rights.
✅ A) Both A and R false
Explanation: OCI cannot buy agricultural land.
Q148. Assertion (A): PIO scheme was merged with OCI in 2015.
Reason (R): To simplify diaspora benefits.
✅ A) Both A and R true, R is correct explanation
Explanation: Merger simplified benefits.
Q149. Assertion (A): USA follows jus soli principle.
Reason (R): Citizenship granted by birth on soil.
✅ A) Both A and R true, R is correct explanation
Explanation: USA follows jus soli.
Q150. Assertion (A): India follows dual citizenship.
Reason (R): Constitution allows state and national citizenship.
✅ A) Both A and R false
Explanation: India allows only single citizenship.
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