President &Vice President of India
Master 200 MCQs on President & Vice-President of India. Covers Articles, powers, elections, case laws, and succession with detailed answers for UPSC, SSC, PSC exams.
A) President of India
B) Vice-President of India
C) Prime Minister
D) Governor
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Article 52 establishes the office of President.
Q2. Article 53 vests executive power in:
A) President
B) Prime Minister
C) Parliament
D) Governor
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Executive power is vested in President.
Q3. President is elected by:
A) Direct election by people
B) Electoral college
C) Rajya Sabha only
D) Lok Sabha only
✅ Correct: B
Explanation: Electoral college includes MPs and MLAs.
Q4. Term of President is:
A) 4 years
B) 5 years
C) 6 years
D) 7 years
✅ Correct: B
Explanation: President holds office for 5 years.
Q5. Minimum age for President:
A) 25 years
B) 30 years
C) 35 years
D) 40 years
✅ Correct: C
Explanation: Must be 35 years of age.
Q6. Qualification for President includes:
A) Citizen of India
B) Eligible for Lok Sabha
C) 35 years of age
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: All conditions must be met.
Q7. President is elected under:
A) Article 54
B) Article 55
C) Article 56
D) Article 57
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Article 54 deals with election.
Q8. Manner of election is in:
A) Article 55
B) Article 56
C) Article 57
D) Article 58
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Article 55 prescribes election manner.
Q9. Term of office is in:
A) Article 56
B) Article 57
C) Article 58
D) Article 59
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Article 56 covers term.
Q10. Eligibility conditions are in:
A) Article 58
B) Article 59
C) Article 60
D) Article 61
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Article 58 lays down qualifications.
Q11. Oath of President is in:
A) Article 60
B) Article 61
C) Article 62
D) Article 63
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Oath administered by Chief Justice.
Q12. Impeachment of President is in:
A) Article 61
B) Article 62
C) Article 63
D) Article 64
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Article 61 provides impeachment procedure.
Q13. Grounds for impeachment:
A) Violation of Constitution
B) Corruption
C) Misconduct
D) Treason
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Only violation of Constitution.
Q14. President can resign to:
A) Vice-President
B) Prime Minister
C) Chief Justice
D) Speaker
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Resignation to Vice-President.
Q15. Vacancy in President’s office must be filled within:
A) 3 months
B) 6 months
C) 1 year
D) 2 years
✅ Correct: B
Explanation: Election within 6 months.
Q16. President is elected by system of:
A) Proportional representation by single transferable vote
B) First-past-the-post
C) Simple majority
D) Direct election
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Special system ensures fairness.
Q17. Value of MLA’s vote depends on:
A) Population of state
B) Number of MPs
C) Number of MLAs
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Based on population/state seats.
Q18. Value of MP’s vote:
A) Total value of MLA votes ÷ total MPs
B) Fixed 1
C) Fixed 100
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: MP’s vote value derived mathematically.
Q19. President’s election disputes decided by:
A) Supreme Court
B) High Court
C) Parliament
D) Election Commission
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: SC decides disputes.
Q20. President can hold office beyond term until:
A) Successor assumes office
B) Parliament decides
C) PM decides
D) EC decides
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Continuity ensured.
Q21. First President of India:
A) Rajendra Prasad
B) Radhakrishnan
C) Zakir Hussain
D) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Dr. Rajendra Prasad.
Q22. Only President to serve two terms:
A) Rajendra Prasad
B) Radhakrishnan
C) Zakir Hussain
D) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Served two full terms.
Q23. Youngest elected President:
A) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
B) Rajendra Prasad
C) Radhakrishnan
D) Zakir Hussain
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Elected unopposed at 64.
Q24. First woman President:
A) Pratibha Patil
B) Indira Gandhi
C) Sarojini Naidu
D) Sonia Gandhi
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Pratibha Patil (2007–2012).
Q25. President’s election is conducted by:
A) Election Commission of India
B) Supreme Court
C) Parliament
D) Rajya Sabha
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: ECI conducts election.
Q26. President appoints:
A) Prime Minister, Governors, Judges, CAG
B) Only Prime Minister
C) Only Governors
D) Only Judges
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: President appoints key constitutional authorities.
Q27. President is Supreme Commander of:
A) Armed Forces
B) Police
C) Judiciary
D) Parliament
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Article 53 vests command in President.
Q28. President summons and prorogues:
A) Parliament
B) Supreme Court
C) State Assemblies
D) Election Commission
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Legislative powers include summoning sessions.
Q29. President dissolves:
A) Lok Sabha
B) Rajya Sabha
C) Both Houses
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Only Lok Sabha can be dissolved.
Q30. President addresses Parliament under:
A) Article 87
B) Article 88
C) Article 89
D) Article 90
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: President addresses first session after elections.
Q31. President nominates members to:
A) Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha
B) Only Rajya Sabha
C) Only Lok Sabha
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: 12 to Rajya Sabha, 2 Anglo‑Indians to Lok Sabha.
Q32. President assents to:
A) Bills passed by Parliament
B) Ordinances
C) Money Bills
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Assent required for laws.
Q33. President can return a bill for reconsideration except:
A) Money Bill
B) Ordinary Bill
C) Constitutional Amendment Bill
D) Both A and C
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Cannot return Money or Amendment Bills.
Q34. President promulgates ordinances under:
A) Article 123
B) Article 124
C) Article 125
D) Article 126
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Ordinance power during recess of Parliament.
Q35. Ordinance validity:
A) 6 weeks from reassembly of Parliament
B) 3 months
C) 6 months
D) 1 year
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Must be approved within 6 weeks.
Q36. President’s pardoning power is under:
A) Article 72
B) Article 73
C) Article 74
D) Article 75
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Includes pardon, reprieve, remission, commutation.
Q37. President’s pardoning power applies to:
A) Court Martial cases
B) Death sentences
C) Offences under Union law
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Wide scope of pardoning power.
Q38. President declares national emergency under:
A) Article 352
B) Article 356
C) Article 360
D) Article 361
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Emergency due to war, external aggression, armed rebellion.
Q39. President declares state emergency under:
A) Article 356
B) Article 352
C) Article 360
D) Article 361
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: State emergency on Governor’s report.
Q40. President declares financial emergency under:
A) Article 360
B) Article 352
C) Article 356
D) Article 361
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Financial emergency under Article 360.
Q41. President’s emergency powers include:
A) Suspension of FRs (except Arts. 20, 21)
B) Extension of Parliament term
C) Direction to States
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Wide emergency powers.
Q42. President’s ordinance power is similar to:
A) Governor’s power under Article 213
B) PM’s power
C) Speaker’s power
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Governor has similar ordinance power.
Q43. President’s veto powers include:
A) Absolute, Suspensive, Pocket
B) Only Absolute
C) Only Suspensive
D) Only Pocket
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: All three types of veto.
Q44. President’s pocket veto was used in:
A) Postal Bill (1986)
B) RTE Act
C) GST Bill
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Postal Bill withheld indefinitely.
Q45. President’s role in constitutional amendment:
A) Must give assent
B) Can return bill
C) Can veto
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: No discretion, must assent.
Q46. President’s discretionary powers are:
A) Appointment of PM when no majority
B) Dissolution of Lok Sabha in hung Parliament
C) Pocket veto
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Limited discretionary powers.
Q47. President’s legislative powers include:
A) Summoning, proroguing, dissolving Lok Sabha
B) Addressing Parliament
C) Nominating members
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Legislative role is significant.
Q48. President’s judicial powers include:
A) Pardoning power
B) Appointment of judges
C) Reference to SC under Article 143
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Judicial role is wide.
Q49. President’s executive powers include:
A) Appointing PM, Ministers, Governors, CAG
B) Supreme Commander of Armed Forces
C) Conduct of Union affairs
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Executive powers are extensive.
Q50. President’s emergency powers are subject to:
A) Parliamentary approval
B) Judicial review
C) Both A and B
D) None
✅ Correct: C
Explanation: Emergency powers checked by Parliament and SC.
Q51. President’s pardoning power includes:
A) Pardon, reprieve, remission, commutation
B) Only pardon
C) Only reprieve
D) Only remission
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Article 72 grants all four powers.
Q52. President’s pardoning power applies to:
A) Court Martial cases
B) Death sentences
C) Offences under Union law
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Wide scope of application.
Q53. Governor’s pardoning power differs because:
A) Cannot pardon death sentence
B) Cannot pardon Union offences
C) Limited to State laws
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Governor’s power narrower.
Q54. President’s ordinance power is under:
A) Article 123
B) Article 124
C) Article 125
D) Article 126
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Ordinance during recess of Parliament.
Q55. Ordinance validity period:
A) 6 weeks from reassembly of Parliament
B) 3 months
C) 6 months
D) 1 year
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Must be approved within 6 weeks.
Q56. President’s ordinance power is similar to:
A) Governor’s power under Article 213
B) PM’s power
C) Speaker’s power
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Governor has similar ordinance power.
Q57. President’s ordinance power criticized as:
A) Executive legislation
B) Judicial supremacy
C) Parliamentary supremacy
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Ordinances bypass Parliament.
Q58. President’s ordinance power subject to:
A) Judicial review
B) Parliamentary approval
C) Both A and B
D) None
✅ Correct: C
Explanation: Checked by SC and Parliament.
Q59. President’s pocket veto example:
A) Postal Bill, 1986
B) GST Bill
C) RTE Act
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Postal Bill withheld indefinitely.
Q60. President’s veto powers include:
A) Absolute, Suspensive, Pocket
B) Only Absolute
C) Only Suspensive
D) Only Pocket
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: All three types of veto.
Q61. President’s role in constitutional amendment:
A) Must give assent
B) Can return bill
C) Can veto
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: No discretion, must assent.
Q62. President’s discretionary powers include:
A) Appointment of PM in hung Parliament
B) Dissolution of Lok Sabha in hung Parliament
C) Pocket veto
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Limited discretionary powers.
Q63. Case law: Shamsher Singh v. State of Punjab (1974) held:
A) President acts on aid and advice of Council of Ministers
B) President acts independently
C) President has absolute powers
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: President bound by advice.
Q64. Case law: Rameshwar Prasad v. Union of India (2006) held:
A) Governor’s report subject to judicial review
B) President absolute
C) Parliament supreme
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Judicial review applies.
Q65. Case law: Kehar Singh v. Union of India (1989) held:
A) President’s pardoning power is judicially reviewable
B) President absolute
C) Parliament supreme
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Pardoning power subject to review.
Q66. Case law: Maru Ram v. Union of India (1980) held:
A) Pardoning power not absolute, must be exercised on advice of Council of Ministers
B) President absolute
C) Parliament supreme
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Advice binding.
Q67. Case law: D.C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar (1987) held:
A) Re-promulgation of ordinances unconstitutional
B) Ordinances valid indefinitely
C) President absolute
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Re-promulgation criticized.
Q68. Case law: Krishna Kumar Singh v. State of Bihar (2017) held:
A) Ordinances lapse if not approved
B) Ordinances valid indefinitely
C) President absolute
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Ordinances lapse without approval.
Q69. Case law: Shamsher Singh emphasized:
A) President is nominal head
B) President is real executive
C) President is judicial head
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Real power lies with Council of Ministers.
Q70. Case law: Maru Ram emphasized:
A) Pardoning power exercised on advice
B) President absolute
C) Parliament supreme
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Advice binding.
Q71. Case law: Kehar Singh emphasized:
A) Pardoning power subject to judicial review
B) President absolute
C) Parliament supreme
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: SC can review pardons.
Q72. Case law: Rameshwar Prasad emphasized:
A) Governor’s report subject to judicial review
B) President absolute
C) Parliament supreme
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Judicial review applies.
Q73. Case law: D.C. Wadhwa emphasized:
A) Re-promulgation unconstitutional
B) Ordinances valid indefinitely
C) President absolute
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Re-promulgation criticized.
Q74. Case law: Krishna Kumar Singh emphasized:
A) Ordinances lapse if not approved
B) Ordinances valid indefinitely
C) President absolute
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Ordinances lapse without approval.
Q75. President’s pardoning power ensures:
A) Mercy and justice balance
B) Absolute authority
C) Parliamentary supremacy
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Pardoning power balances justice with mercy.
Q76. National emergency is under:
A) Article 352
B) Article 356
C) Article 360
D) Article 361
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Declared due to war, external aggression, armed rebellion.
Q77. State emergency is under:
A) Article 356
B) Article 352
C) Article 360
D) Article 361
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Declared on Governor’s report or otherwise.
Q78. Financial emergency is under:
A) Article 360
B) Article 352
C) Article 356
D) Article 361
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Declared when financial stability threatened.
Q79. National emergency requires approval within:
A) 1 month
B) 2 months
C) 6 months
D) 1 year
✅ Correct: B
Explanation: Must be approved within 2 months.
Q80. State emergency requires approval within:
A) 2 months
B) 3 months
C) 6 months
D) 1 year
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Must be approved within 2 months.
Q81. Financial emergency requires approval within:
A) 2 months
B) 3 months
C) 6 months
D) 1 year
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Must be approved within 2 months.
Q82. National emergency maximum duration:
A) Indefinite with parliamentary approval
B) 1 year only
C) 3 years only
D) 6 months only
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Can continue indefinitely with approval.
Q83. State emergency maximum duration:
A) 3 years with parliamentary approval
B) 1 year only
C) 6 months only
D) Indefinite
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Maximum 3 years with conditions.
Q84. Financial emergency maximum duration:
A) Indefinite with parliamentary approval
B) 1 year only
C) 3 years only
D) 6 months only
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Indefinite with approval.
Q85. During national emergency, FRs under:
A) Articles 19, 20, 21 suspended (except 20, 21)
B) All FRs suspended
C) None suspended
D) Only Article 21 suspended
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Article 19 can be suspended, 20 & 21 protected.
Q86. During state emergency, President can:
A) Assume functions of State government
B) Dissolve Legislative Assembly
C) Parliament makes laws for State
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Wide powers under Article 356.
Q87. During financial emergency, President can:
A) Reduce salaries of officials
B) Direct States on financial matters
C) Reserve money bills for Parliament
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Extensive financial control.
Q88. National emergency declared thrice in India:
A) 1962, 1971, 1975
B) 1962, 1975, 1984
C) 1962, 1971, 1984
D) 1971, 1975, 1984
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: War with China, war with Pakistan, internal emergency.
Q89. Longest national emergency lasted:
A) 1975–1977
B) 1962–1968
C) 1971–1977
D) 1984–1989
✅ Correct: C
Explanation: 1971–1977 (combined war + internal).
Q90. State emergency imposed most frequently in:
A) Punjab
B) Uttar Pradesh
C) Jammu & Kashmir
D) Kerala
✅ Correct: C
Explanation: J&K saw frequent President’s Rule.
Q91. Financial emergency declared:
A) Never
B) Once
C) Twice
D) Thrice
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Never declared till date.
Q92. National emergency approval requires:
A) Special majority in Parliament
B) Simple majority
C) Presidential assent only
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Special majority required.
Q93. State emergency approval requires:
A) Simple majority in Parliament
B) Special majority
C) Presidential assent only
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Simple majority sufficient.
Q94. Financial emergency approval requires:
A) Simple majority in Parliament
B) Special majority
C) Presidential assent only
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Simple majority sufficient.
Q95. National emergency affects:
A) Centre-State relations
B) Fundamental Rights
C) Parliamentary powers
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Wide-ranging impact.
Q96. State emergency affects:
A) State government functions
B) Legislative Assembly
C) Parliament’s law-making power
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Centre assumes control.
Q97. Financial emergency affects:
A) Salaries of officials
B) State finances
C) Money bills
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Centre controls finances.
Q98. National emergency under Article 352 requires:
A) Written proclamation by President
B) Oral declaration
C) Governor’s report
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Formal proclamation required.
Q99. State emergency under Article 356 requires:
A) Governor’s report or President’s satisfaction
B) Parliament’s prior approval
C) Supreme Court order
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Governor’s report or satisfaction.
Q100. Financial emergency under Article 360 requires:
A) President’s satisfaction
B) Governor’s report
C) Parliament’s prior approval
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Declared on President’s satisfaction.
Q101. President summons Parliament under:
A) Article 85
B) Article 86
C) Article 87
D) Article 88
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Article 85 empowers President to summon sessions.
Q102. President addresses Parliament under:
A) Article 87
B) Article 88
C) Article 89
D) Article 90
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: President addresses first session after elections and each year.
Q103. President can dissolve:
A) Lok Sabha
B) Rajya Sabha
C) Both Houses
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Only Lok Sabha can be dissolved.
Q104. President nominates members to:
A) Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha
B) Only Rajya Sabha
C) Only Lok Sabha
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: 12 to Rajya Sabha, 2 Anglo‑Indians to Lok Sabha.
Q105. President assents to:
A) Bills passed by Parliament
B) Money Bills
C) Constitutional Amendment Bills
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Assent required for all bills.
Q106. President can return a bill for reconsideration except:
A) Money Bill
B) Constitutional Amendment Bill
C) Both A and B
D) None
✅ Correct: C
Explanation: Cannot return Money or Amendment Bills.
Q107. President’s veto powers include:
A) Absolute, Suspensive, Pocket
B) Only Absolute
C) Only Suspensive
D) Only Pocket
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: All three types of veto.
Q108. President’s pocket veto example:
A) Postal Bill, 1986
B) GST Bill
C) RTE Act
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Postal Bill withheld indefinitely.
Q109. President’s role in constitutional amendment:
A) Must give assent
B) Can return bill
C) Can veto
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: No discretion, must assent.
Q110. President’s discretionary powers include:
A) Appointment of PM in hung Parliament
B) Dissolution of Lok Sabha in hung Parliament
C) Pocket veto
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Limited discretionary powers.
Q111. President’s legislative powers include:
A) Summoning, proroguing, dissolving Lok Sabha
B) Addressing Parliament
C) Nominating members
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Legislative role is significant.
Q112. President’s role in Money Bills:
A) Cannot refuse assent
B) Can return for reconsideration
C) Can veto
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Must assent to Money Bills.
Q113. President’s role in Ordinary Bills:
A) Can return for reconsideration
B) Can veto
C) Can assent
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Ordinary Bills allow discretion.
Q114. President’s role in Constitutional Amendment Bills:
A) Must assent
B) Can return
C) Can veto
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: No discretion, must assent.
Q115. President’s role in Joint Sitting:
A) Summons Parliament for joint sitting
B) Presides over joint sitting
C) Decides disputes
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Summons joint sitting under Article 108.
Q116. President’s role in Budget:
A) Causes Budget to be laid before Parliament
B) Prepares Budget
C) Approves Budget
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Finance Minister presents on President’s behalf.
Q117. President’s role in Money Bills certification:
A) Speaker certifies Money Bill
B) President certifies
C) PM certifies
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Speaker certifies, not President.
Q118. President’s role in State Bills reserved:
A) Can assent or withhold assent
B) Can return for reconsideration
C) Can veto
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: State Bills reserved for President’s consideration.
Q119. President’s role in Ordinances:
A) Promulgates during recess of Parliament
B) Cannot promulgate
C) Only Governor promulgates
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Ordinance power under Article 123.
Q120. President’s role in Parliamentary sessions:
A) Summons, prorogues, dissolves Lok Sabha
B) Addresses Parliament
C) Nominates members
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Comprehensive legislative role.
Q121. President’s role in Rajya Sabha:
A) Nominates 12 members
B) Dissolves Rajya Sabha
C) Presides over Rajya Sabha
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Rajya Sabha is permanent, not dissolved.
Q122. President’s role in Lok Sabha:
A) Dissolves Lok Sabha
B) Nominates 2 Anglo‑Indians
C) Summons sessions
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Lok Sabha powers extensive.
Q123. President’s role in Parliamentary address:
A) Outlines government policies
B) Presents Budget
C) Certifies Money Bill
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Address outlines policies.
Q124. President’s role in assent to bills:
A) Essential for bill to become law
B) Optional
C) Not required
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Assent required for enactment.
Q125. President’s role in veto powers ensures:
A) Check on legislature
B) Absolute authority
C) Judicial supremacy
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Veto acts as legislative check.
Q126. President appoints:
A) Prime Minister
B) Governors
C) Judges of SC/HC
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: President appoints key constitutional authorities.
Q127. President appoints PM when:
A) Party has majority in Lok Sabha
B) Hung Parliament exists
C) Coalition claims majority
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Appointment based on majority support.
Q128. President appoints other ministers on:
A) Advice of PM
B) Own discretion
C) Parliament’s decision
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Ministers appointed on PM’s advice.
Q129. President appoints Governors under:
A) Article 155
B) Article 156
C) Article 157
D) Article 158
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Article 155 empowers appointment.
Q130. President appoints Judges of SC under:
A) Article 124
B) Article 125
C) Article 126
D) Article 127
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: SC judges appointed under Article 124.
Q131. President appoints Judges of HC under:
A) Article 217
B) Article 218
C) Article 219
D) Article 220
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: HC judges appointed under Article 217.
Q132. President appoints CAG under:
A) Article 148
B) Article 149
C) Article 150
D) Article 151
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: CAG appointed under Article 148.
Q133. President appoints Attorney General under:
A) Article 76
B) Article 77
C) Article 78
D) Article 79
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: AG appointed under Article 76.
Q134. President appoints Advocate General under:
A) Article 165
B) Article 166
C) Article 167
D) Article 168
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Advocate General appointed under Article 165.
Q135. President appoints members of UPSC under:
A) Article 316
B) Article 317
C) Article 318
D) Article 319
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: UPSC members appointed under Article 316.
Q136. President appoints members of Finance Commission under:
A) Article 280
B) Article 281
C) Article 282
D) Article 283
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Finance Commission appointed under Article 280.
Q137. President appoints members of NHRC under:
A) Statutory provisions
B) Constitutional provisions
C) Judicial provisions
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: NHRC appointments under statute.
Q138. President appoints members of Election Commission under:
A) Article 324
B) Article 325
C) Article 326
D) Article 327
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: EC members appointed under Article 324.
Q139. President appoints members of Planning Commission (before NITI Aayog) under:
A) Executive order
B) Constitutional provision
C) Judicial order
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Planning Commission was executive body.
Q140. President appoints members of NITI Aayog under:
A) Executive order
B) Constitutional provision
C) Judicial order
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: NITI Aayog is executive body.
Q141. President appoints members of Inter‑State Council under:
A) Article 263
B) Article 264
C) Article 265
D) Article 266
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: ISC under Article 263.
Q142. President appoints members of Finance Ministry bodies under:
A) Executive order
B) Constitutional provision
C) Judicial order
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: By executive order.
Q143. President appoints members of National Commissions (SC/ST/OBC) under:
A) Statutory provisions
B) Constitutional provisions
C) Judicial provisions
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Appointments under statute.
Q144. President appoints members of Minorities Commission under:
A) Statutory provisions
B) Constitutional provisions
C) Judicial provisions
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Statutory appointments.
Q145. President appoints members of Linguistic Minorities Commission under:
A) Article 350B
B) Article 351
C) Article 352
D) Article 353
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Commissioner under Article 350B.
Q146. President appoints members of Backward Classes Commission under:
A) Statutory provisions
B) Constitutional provisions
C) Judicial provisions
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Statutory appointments.
Q147. President appoints members of National Commission for Women under:
A) Statutory provisions
B) Constitutional provisions
C) Judicial provisions
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Appointments under statute.
Q148. President appoints members of National Commission for Minorities under:
A) Statutory provisions
B) Constitutional provisions
C) Judicial provisions
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Statutory appointments.
Q149. President’s discretionary powers include:
A) Appointment of PM in hung Parliament
B) Dissolution of Lok Sabha in hung Parliament
C) Pocket veto
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Limited discretionary powers.
Q150. President’s executive powers ensure:
A) Implementation of laws
B) Appointment of key officials
C) Conduct of Union affairs
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Executive powers are extensive.
Q151. Article 63 provides for:
A) Vice-President of India
B) President of India
C) Prime Minister
D) Governor
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Article 63 establishes office of Vice-President.
Q152. Vice-President is elected under:
A) Article 66
B) Article 67
C) Article 68
D) Article 69
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Article 66 deals with election.
Q153. Vice-President is elected by:
A) Electoral college of MPs
B) Electoral college of MPs and MLAs
C) Direct election by people
D) Rajya Sabha only
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Elected by MPs of both Houses.
Q154. Term of Vice-President is:
A) 4 years
B) 5 years
C) 6 years
D) 7 years
✅ Correct: B
Explanation: Holds office for 5 years.
Q155. Minimum age for Vice-President:
A) 25 years
B) 30 years
C) 35 years
D) 40 years
✅ Correct: C
Explanation: Must be 35 years of age.
Q156. Qualification for Vice-President includes:
A) Citizen of India
B) Eligible for Rajya Sabha
C) 35 years of age
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Must satisfy all conditions.
Q157. Vice-President’s oath is under:
A) Article 69
B) Article 70
C) Article 71
D) Article 72
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Oath administered by President.
Q158. Vice-President’s removal is under:
A) Article 67
B) Article 68
C) Article 69
D) Article 70
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Removal by resolution of Rajya Sabha.
Q159. Vice-President is ex-officio:
A) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
B) Speaker of Lok Sabha
C) Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
Q160. Vice-President presides over Rajya Sabha except:
A) When President present
B) When Deputy Chairman presides
C) When Speaker presides
D) None
✅ Correct: B
Explanation: Deputy Chairman presides in absence.
Q161. Vice-President acts as President when:
A) Vacancy occurs
B) President absent
C) President removed
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Acts as President in all such cases.
Q162. Vice-President can act as President for maximum:
A) 6 months
B) 1 year
C) 2 years
D) Indefinite
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Must elect new President within 6 months.
Q163. Vice-President’s election disputes decided by:
A) Supreme Court
B) High Court
C) Parliament
D) Election Commission
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: SC decides disputes.
Q164. Vice-President’s resignation submitted to:
A) President
B) Prime Minister
C) Speaker
D) Chief Justice
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Resignation to President.
Q165. First Vice-President of India:
A) S. Radhakrishnan
B) Zakir Hussain
C) Rajendra Prasad
D) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Dr. S. Radhakrishnan (1952–1962).
Q166. Vice-President who became President:
A) S. Radhakrishnan
B) Zakir Hussain
C) V.V. Giri
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Several VPs became Presidents.
Q167. Vice-President’s role in Rajya Sabha:
A) Presides over sessions
B) Maintains order
C) Decides on procedural matters
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Functions as presiding officer.
Q168. Vice-President’s role in succession:
A) Acts as President until new election
B) Becomes permanent President
C) Cannot act as President
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Acts until new President elected.
Q169. Vice-President’s removal requires:
A) Resolution by Rajya Sabha, agreed by Lok Sabha
B) Resolution by Lok Sabha only
C) Resolution by Rajya Sabha only
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Removal by RS, agreed by LS.
Q170. Vice-President’s election conducted by:
A) Election Commission of India
B) Supreme Court
C) Parliament
D) Rajya Sabha
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: ECI conducts election.
Q171. Vice-President’s role in Parliament:
A) Presides over Rajya Sabha
B) Cannot vote except casting vote
C) Maintains order
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Functions as presiding officer.
Q172. Vice-President’s role in Lok Sabha:
A) None
B) Presides over Lok Sabha
C) Nominates members
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: No role in Lok Sabha.
Q173. Vice-President’s role in succession to Presidency:
A) Acts as President until new election
B) Becomes permanent President
C) Cannot act as President
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Acts until new President elected.
Q174. Vice-President’s role in oath:
A) Administered by President
B) Administered by Chief Justice
C) Administered by Speaker
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Oath administered by President.
Q175. Vice-President’s role ensures:
A) Continuity of governance
B) Stability in Parliament
C) Succession to Presidency
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Ensures stability and continuity.
Q176. Assertion (A): Vice-President is ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
Reason (R): Article 64 provides this.
A) Both A and R true, R correct explanation
B) Both A and R true, R not correct explanation
C) A true, R false
D) A false, R true
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Article 64 makes VP Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
Q177. Assertion (A): Vice-President acts as President in vacancy.
Reason (R): Article 65 provides this.
A) Both A and R true, R correct explanation
B) Both A and R true, R not correct explanation
C) A true, R false
D) A false, R true
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: VP acts as President until new election.
Q178. Assertion (A): Vice-President is elected by MPs of both Houses.
Reason (R): MLAs also participate.
A) Both A and R true, R correct explanation
B) Both A and R true, R not correct explanation
C) A true, R false
D) A false, R true
✅ Correct: C
Explanation: Only MPs elect VP, not MLAs.
Q179. Assertion (A): Vice-President’s removal requires RS resolution agreed by LS.
Reason (R): Article 67 provides this.
A) Both A and R true, R correct explanation
B) Both A and R true, R not correct explanation
C) A true, R false
D) A false, R true
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Removal procedure under Article 67.
Q180. Assertion (A): Vice-President’s election disputes decided by SC.
Reason (R): Article 71 provides this.
A) Both A and R true, R correct explanation
B) Both A and R true, R not correct explanation
C) A true, R false
D) A false, R true
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: SC decides disputes under Article 71.
Q181. Case law: Inhabitant of Rajya Sabha v. Union of India held:
A) VP’s role as Chairman is constitutional
B) VP’s role is statutory
C) VP has judicial powers
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: VP’s role as Chairman is constitutional.
Q182. Case law: VP’s election disputes are subject to:
A) Supreme Court jurisdiction
B) High Court jurisdiction
C) Parliament’s decision
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: SC decides disputes.
Q183. Assertion (A): VP is part of Union Executive.
Reason (R): Mentioned in Article 53.
A) Both A and R true, R correct explanation
B) Both A and R true, R not correct explanation
C) A true, R false
D) A false, R true
✅ Correct: C
Explanation: VP is not mentioned in Article 53.
Q184. Assertion (A): VP’s role ensures continuity of governance.
Reason (R): Acts as President in vacancy.
A) Both A and R true, R correct explanation
B) Both A and R true, R not correct explanation
C) A true, R false
D) A false, R true
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: VP ensures continuity.
Q185. Assertion (A): VP’s removal is easier than President’s.
Reason (R): Requires only RS resolution agreed by LS.
A) Both A and R true, R correct explanation
B) Both A and R true, R not correct explanation
C) A true, R false
D) A false, R true
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Removal simpler than impeachment.
Q186. Assertion (A): VP presides over Rajya Sabha.
Reason (R): Speaker presides over Rajya Sabha.
A) Both A and R true, R correct explanation
B) Both A and R true, R not correct explanation
C) A true, R false
D) A false, R true
✅ Correct: C
Explanation: VP, not Speaker, presides.
Q187. Assertion (A): VP cannot vote in Rajya Sabha except casting vote.
Reason (R): Presiding officer votes only in tie.
A) Both A and R true, R correct explanation
B) Both A and R true, R not correct explanation
C) A true, R false
D) A false, R true
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Casting vote only.
Q188. Assertion (A): VP’s election is indirect.
Reason (R): MPs elect VP.
A) Both A and R true, R correct explanation
B) Both A and R true, R not correct explanation
C) A true, R false
D) A false, R true
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Indirect election by MPs.
Q189. Assertion (A): VP’s resignation submitted to President.
Reason (R): Article 67 provides this.
A) Both A and R true, R correct explanation
B) Both A and R true, R not correct explanation
C) A true, R false
D) A false, R true
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Resignation to President.
Q190. Assertion (A): VP is second highest constitutional office.
Reason (R): Next to President in hierarchy.
A) Both A and R true, R correct explanation
B) Both A and R true, R not correct explanation
C) A true, R false
D) A false, R true
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: VP is second highest office.
Q191. Assertion (A): VP’s election uses proportional representation.
Reason (R): Single transferable vote system.
A) Both A and R true, R correct explanation
B) Both A and R true, R not correct explanation
C) A true, R false
D) A false, R true
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Same system as President’s election.
Q192. Assertion (A): VP’s removal requires impeachment.
Reason (R): Same as President.
A) Both A and R true, R correct explanation
B) Both A and R true, R not correct explanation
C) A true, R false
D) A false, R true
✅ Correct: C
Explanation: VP removed by resolution, not impeachment.
Q193. Assertion (A): VP is part of Parliament.
Reason (R): Ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
A) Both A and R true, R correct explanation
B) Both A and R true, R not correct explanation
C) A true, R false
D) A false, R true
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: VP is part of Parliament.
Q194. Assertion (A): VP’s election disputes are final in SC.
Reason (R): Article 71 provides this.
A) Both A and R true, R correct explanation
B) Both A and R true, R not correct explanation
C) A true, R false
D) A false, R true
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: SC decides disputes.
Q195. Assertion (A): VP’s role is unique in combining executive and legislative functions.
Reason (R): Acts as President and Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
A) Both A and R true, R correct explanation
B) Both A and R true, R not correct explanation
C) A true, R false
D) A false, R true
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Combines both roles.
Q196. Assertion (A): VP is elected by proportional representation.
Reason (R): Single transferable vote system.
A) Both A and R true, R correct explanation
B) Both A and R true, R not correct explanation
C) A true, R false
D) A false, R true
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Same system as President.
Q197. Assertion (A): VP’s removal requires simple majority.
Reason (R): Resolution agreed by both Houses.
A) Both A and R true, R correct explanation
B) Both A and R true, R not correct explanation
C) A true, R false
D) A false, R true
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Simple majority sufficient.
Q198. Assertion (A): VP’s role ensures succession to Presidency.
Reason (R): Acts as President until election.
A) Both A and R true, R correct explanation
B) Both A and R true, R not correct explanation
C) A true, R false
D) A false, R true
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Ensures continuity.
Q199. Assertion (A): VP’s role in Rajya Sabha is similar to Speaker’s role in Lok Sabha.
Reason (R): Both preside and maintain order.
A) Both A and R true, R correct explanation
B) Both A and R true, R not correct explanation
C) A true, R false
D) A false, R true
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Presiding officer roles similar.
Q200. Assertion (A): VP’s office is essential for stability.
Reason (R): Provides continuity in governance and Parliament.
A) Both A and R true, R correct explanation
B) Both A and R true, R not correct explanation
C) A true, R false
D) A false, R true
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: The Vice-President ensures continuity in governance by acting as President during vacancy and stability in Parliament as ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
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