Political Parties
Political parties are the backbone of India’s parliamentary democracy, serving as the vital link between citizens and the government. This 100 MCQ master set comprehensively covers the legal framework under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, the Election Symbols Order of 1968, and the Anti‑Defection Law in the Tenth Schedule. It explores the classification of parties into national, state, and registered unrecognized categories, along with the rise of coalition politics and the federal party system. The set also examines the role of parties in candidate selection, manifestos, parliamentary dynamics, and government formation, while addressing critical issues such as internal democracy, dynastic politics, party funding, electoral bonds, and criminalization of politics. Landmark Supreme Court judgments, Election Commission guidelines, and Law Commission recommendations are integrated to ensure conceptual clarity and exam authenticity. Designed for UPSC, SSC, PSC, and other competitive exams, this module guarantees syllabus completeness, analytical depth, and deployment‑ready content for students and educators.
A) Representation of the People Act, 1951
B) Constitution (Part IV)
C) Election Symbols Order, 1968
D) Anti-defection Law
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: RPA, 1951 governs registration, conduct, and election-related provisions for political parties.
Q2. Recognition of political parties is granted by:
A) Election Commission of India
B) Parliament
C) Supreme Court
D) President of India
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: ECI grants recognition as national or state parties based on performance criteria.
Q3. The Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order was issued in:
A) 1968
B) 1951
C) 1975
D) 1985
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: The Symbols Order governs allocation of symbols to parties and candidates.
Q4. Anti-defection provisions are contained in:
A) Tenth Schedule
B) Ninth Schedule
C) Article 324
D) Article 356
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: The Tenth Schedule was added by the 52nd Amendment in 1985.
Q5. A party is recognized as a national party if it secures:
A) 6% votes in four or more states and wins 4 Lok Sabha seats
B) 10% votes nationally
C) 5% votes in two states
D) 2% seats in Rajya Sabha
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: ECI criteria include vote share and seat performance across states.
Q6. A party is recognized as a state party if it secures:
A) 6% votes and 2 seats in Legislative Assembly
B) 10% votes in the state
C) 5 seats in Lok Sabha
D) 2% seats in Rajya Sabha
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: ECI defines state party status based on vote share and seat count.
Q7. The Election Commission is empowered under which Article?
A) Article 324
B) Article 326
C) Article 280
D) Article 76
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Article 324 vests ECI with powers to conduct elections.
Q8. The Anti-defection Law was introduced by which amendment?
A) 52nd Amendment Act, 1985
B) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
C) 44th Amendment Act, 1978
D) 61st Amendment Act, 1989
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: The 52nd Amendment added the Tenth Schedule.
Q9. Disqualification under Anti-defection Law is decided by:
A) Speaker/Chairman of the House
B) President
C) Supreme Court
D) Election Commission
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Presiding officer of the House decides disqualification.
Q10. A political party must register with ECI under:
A) Section 29A of RPA, 1951
B) Article 324
C) Tenth Schedule
D) Article 356
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Section 29A governs party registration.
Q11. The Model Code of Conduct is:
A) A voluntary code issued by ECI
B) A constitutional provision
C) A statutory law
D) A parliamentary resolution
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: MCC is a non-statutory code issued by ECI during elections.
Q12. The Anti-defection Law applies to:
A) MPs and MLAs
B) Judges
C) Governors
D) Election Commissioners
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: It applies to members of Parliament and State Legislatures.
Q13. Grounds for disqualification under Anti-defection Law include:
A) Voluntarily giving up party membership
B) Voting against party direction
C) Both A and B
D) None
✅ Correct: C
Explanation: Both actions attract disqualification.
Q14. Exceptions to disqualification include:
A) Merger with another party
B) Expulsion from party
C) Resignation from House
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Merger with two-thirds support is exempt.
Q15. The Supreme Court upheld Anti-defection Law in:
A) Kihoto Hollohan vs Zachillhu (1992)
B) Kesavananda Bharati case
C) Golaknath case
D) Indira Gandhi vs Raj Narain
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: SC upheld Speaker’s authority under Tenth Schedule.
Q16. Political parties are not mentioned in:
A) The Constitution
B) RPA, 1951
C) Symbols Order
D) Tenth Schedule
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Constitution does not explicitly mention political parties.
Q17. The Election Commission can derecognize a party if:
A) It fails to meet criteria for recognition
B) It violates MCC
C) It loses in elections
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Recognition is performance-based.
Q18. The Tenth Schedule does not apply to:
A) President
B) MPs
C) MLAs
D) MLCs
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: It applies only to legislators.
Q19. The Model Code of Conduct is enforced during:
A) Election period
B) Budget session
C) Monsoon session
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: MCC applies from announcement to completion of elections.
Q20. The Election Commission’s symbol allocation is governed by:
A) Symbols Order, 1968
B) RPA, 1951
C) Constitution
D) Tenth Schedule
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Symbols Order governs symbol allocation.
Q21. Political parties must submit annual audit reports to:
A) Election Commission
B) Parliament
C) Supreme Court
D) Finance Commission
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: ECI mandates financial transparency.
Q22. Electoral bonds were introduced in:
A) 2018
B) 2014
C) 2016
D) 2020
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Electoral bonds were introduced to reform party funding.
Q23. Political parties are required to disclose donations above:
A) ₹20,000
B) ₹50,000
C) ₹10,000
D) ₹1,00,000
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Donations above ₹20,000 must be disclosed.
Q24. The Anti-defection Law does not apply to:
A) Independent members joining party after election
B) Nominated members
C) Both A and B
D) None
✅ Correct: C
Explanation: Special provisions apply to independents and nominated members.
Q25. The Election Commission’s power to register parties is:
A) Quasi-judicial
B) Legislative
C) Executive
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: ECI exercises quasi-judicial powers in registration.
Q26. India follows which type of party system?
A) Multi-party system
B) Two-party system
C) Single-party system
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: India has a multi-party system recognized by the Constitution and RPA.
Q27. A national party must secure recognition in:
A) At least 4 states
B) At least 2 states
C) All states
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Recognition requires performance in 4 or more states.
Q28. A state party is recognized based on performance in:
A) One state only
B) Two states
C) Four states
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: State party recognition is confined to one state.
Q29. Registered but unrecognized parties are:
A) Parties registered with ECI but not fulfilling recognition criteria
B) Parties banned by ECI
C) Parties dissolved by Parliament
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Many small parties fall in this category.
Q30. Coalition governments in India are a result of:
A) Multi-party system
B) Two-party system
C) Presidential system
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Multi-party system leads to coalitions.
Q31. The first coalition government at the Centre was formed in:
A) 1977 (Janata Party)
B) 1989 (National Front)
C) 1996 (United Front)
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Janata Party coalition formed in 1977.
Q32. The Election Commission recognizes parties based on:
A) Vote share and seats won
B) Party ideology
C) Party funding
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Recognition depends on electoral performance.
Q33. National parties are entitled to:
A) Reserved symbols across India
B) Free airtime on national media
C) Special privileges in elections
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Recognition grants privileges.
Q34. State parties are entitled to:
A) Reserved symbols in their state
B) Free airtime on state media
C) Recognition in state elections
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: State parties enjoy privileges within their state.
Q35. The number of national parties in India (as of 2024) is:
A) 6
B) 8
C) 10
D) None
✅ Correct: B
Explanation: ECI recognizes 8 national parties (latest data).
Q36. The number of state parties in India (as of 2024) is:
A) 50+
B) 30+
C) 20+
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Over 50 state parties recognized by ECI.
Q37. Coalition politics became dominant in India after:
A) 1989 general elections
B) 1977 elections
C) 1996 elections
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: 1989 elections marked rise of coalitions.
Q38. Regional parties primarily focus on:
A) State-specific issues
B) National foreign policy
C) International trade
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Regional parties emphasize local issues.
Q39. National parties focus on:
A) National issues and policies
B) State-specific issues only
C) International treaties only
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: National parties frame national policies.
Q40. The Election Commission grants recognition for:
A) 5 years
B) 10 years
C) Based on performance in each election
D) None
✅ Correct: C
Explanation: Recognition is performance-based.
Q41. The concept of party system in India is influenced by:
A) British parliamentary system
B) American presidential system
C) French system
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: India borrowed parliamentary party system from UK.
Q42. The rise of coalition politics is linked to:
A) Decline of single-party dominance
B) Increase in regional parties
C) Both A and B
D) None
✅ Correct: C
Explanation: Both factors contributed.
Q43. The Election Commission allots symbols to:
A) Recognized parties
B) Unrecognized parties
C) Independent candidates
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Symbols allotted to all contesting entities.
Q44. The party system in India is described as:
A) Federal with national and regional parties
B) Unitary
C) Presidential
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: India has federal party system.
Q45. The Janata Party was formed in:
A) 1977
B) 1989
C) 1996
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Janata Party emerged in 1977.
Q46. The United Front coalition was formed in:
A) 1996
B) 1989
C) 1977
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: United Front coalition formed in 1996.
Q47. The National Democratic Alliance (NDA) was formed in:
A) 1998
B) 1989
C) 1977
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: NDA coalition formed in 1998.
Q48. The United Progressive Alliance (UPA) was formed in:
A) 2004
B) 1998
C) 1989
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: UPA coalition formed in 2004.
Q49. Coalition governments reflect:
A) Fragmented electoral mandate
B) Strong single-party dominance
C) Presidential system
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Coalitions arise from fragmented mandates.
Q50. Assertion (A): National parties influence central policies.
Reason (R): They contest elections across multiple states.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: National parties contest widely and shape central policies.
Q51. Primary role of political parties in democracy is:
A) Contesting elections and forming governments
B) Framing judicial policies
C) Conducting audits
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Parties contest elections, form governments, and represent people.
Q52. Political parties select candidates through:
A) Internal party mechanisms
B) Election Commission
C) Judiciary
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Candidate selection is internal to parties.
Q53. Party manifestos are released:
A) Before elections
B) After elections
C) During parliamentary sessions
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Manifestos outline party policies before elections.
Q54. Party funding is regulated by:
A) RPA, 1951 and ECI guidelines
B) Judiciary
C) Finance Commission
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: RPA and ECI regulate party funding.
Q55. Electoral bonds were introduced to:
A) Reform party funding
B) Increase judicial independence
C) Reform judiciary
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Bonds introduced in 2018 to reform funding.
Q56. Political parties must disclose donations above:
A) ₹20,000
B) ₹50,000
C) ₹10,000
D) ₹1,00,000
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Donations above ₹20,000 must be disclosed.
Q57. Internal democracy in parties refers to:
A) Transparent functioning and decision-making
B) Judicial independence
C) Electoral reforms
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Internal democracy ensures transparency.
Q58. Political parties play a key role in:
A) Candidate selection
B) Policy formulation
C) Government formation
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Parties select candidates, frame policies, and form governments.
Q59. Party manifestos are released:
A) Before elections
B) After elections
C) During parliamentary sessions
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Manifestos outline party promises before elections.
Q60. Party funding in India is regulated by:
A) RPA, 1951 and ECI guidelines
B) Constitution
C) Supreme Court
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: RPA and ECI regulate party funding.
Q61. Electoral bonds were introduced to:
A) Reform party funding
B) Increase secrecy in donations
C) Ban corporate donations
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Bonds aimed at transparency in funding.
Q62. Parties must disclose donations above:
A) ₹20,000
B) ₹50,000
C) ₹10,000
D) ₹1,00,000
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Donations above ₹20,000 must be disclosed.
Q63. Internal democracy in parties refers to:
A) Transparent leadership elections
B) Policy debates within party
C) Member participation in decision-making
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Internal democracy ensures accountability.
Q64. The Election Commission mandates parties to submit:
A) Annual audit reports
B) Parliamentary reports
C) Judicial reports
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Parties must submit audited accounts annually.
Q65. Political parties influence Parliament by:
A) Issuing whips
B) Framing policies
C) Controlling debates
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Parties dominate parliamentary functioning.
Q66. A whip is issued by:
A) Party leadership
B) Speaker of Lok Sabha
C) President
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Whips enforce party discipline in voting.
Q67. Defiance of whip may lead to:
A) Disqualification under Anti-defection Law
B) Expulsion from House
C) Judicial review
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Defiance attracts disqualification.
Q68. Parties ensure stability in government through:
A) Majority support in legislature
B) Coalition agreements
C) Both A and B
D) None
✅ Correct: C
Explanation: Stability comes from majority or coalition.
Q69. Parties act as a link between:
A) People and government
B) Judiciary and legislature
C) President and Parliament
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Parties connect citizens with government.
Q70. Parties frame policies through:
A) Manifestos and parliamentary debates
B) Judicial orders
C) Presidential decrees
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Policies framed via manifestos and debates.
Q71. Parties influence legislation by:
A) Controlling majority in House
B) Issuing whips
C) Both A and B
D) None
✅ Correct: C
Explanation: Majority and whips ensure legislative control.
Q72. Parties ensure accountability by:
A) Opposition questioning government
B) Parliamentary debates
C) Both A and B
D) None
✅ Correct: C
Explanation: Opposition and debates hold government accountable.
Q73. Parties mobilize voters through:
A) Campaigns and rallies
B) Media outreach
C) Social media platforms
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Parties use multiple channels to mobilize voters.
Q74. Parties influence candidate selection by:
A) Screening applications
B) Considering winnability
C) Balancing caste/community representation
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Candidate selection involves multiple factors.
Q75. Assertion (A): Political parties dominate parliamentary functioning.
Reason (R): They control majority, issue whips, and frame policies.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Parties dominate Parliament through majority and whips.
Q76. Electoral bonds were introduced in:
A) 2018
B) 2014
C) 2016
D) 2020
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Electoral bonds scheme launched in 2018 to reform party funding.
Q77. The main criticism of electoral bonds is:
A) Lack of donor transparency
B) Excessive regulation
C) Ban on corporate donations
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Bonds allow anonymous donations, reducing transparency.
Q78. Criminalization of politics refers to:
A) Entry of candidates with criminal background
B) Judicial corruption
C) Electoral reforms
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Criminalization means criminals contesting elections.
Q79. Supreme Court directed disclosure of criminal cases by candidates in:
A) 2002 judgment (ADR case)
B) Kesavananda Bharati case
C) Indira Gandhi vs Raj Narain
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: SC mandated disclosure of criminal records.
Q80. Political parties must publish criminal records of candidates under:
A) Supreme Court orders (2018 onwards)
B) RPA, 1951
C) Constitution
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: SC directed parties to publish candidate records.
Q81. Political parties must submit audited accounts to:
A) Election Commission
B) Parliament
C) Supreme Court
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: ECI mandates annual audited accounts.
Q82. Political parties must file income tax returns under:
A) Income Tax Act
B) RPA, 1951
C) Constitution
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Parties must file returns under IT Act.
Q83. The Model Code of Conduct is enforced by:
A) Election Commission
B) Parliament
C) Judiciary
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: MCC enforced by ECI during elections.
Q84. The Model Code of Conduct is:
A) Non-statutory but binding in practice
B) Constitutional provision
C) Judicial order
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: MCC is non-statutory but binding.
Q85. Political parties are criticized for:
A) Dynastic politics
B) Lack of internal democracy
C) Criminalization of politics
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Parties face all these criticisms.
Q86. Supreme Court upheld voters’ right to know candidate details in:
A) ADR case (2002)
B) Kesavananda Bharati case
C) Golaknath case
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: ADR case mandated disclosure.
Q87. Political parties must publish candidate details on:
A) Party website and newspapers
B) Parliament records
C) Judiciary reports
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: SC directed publication in public domain.
Q88. Electoral reforms recommended by Law Commission include:
A) State funding of elections
B) Ban on anonymous donations
C) Strengthening internal democracy
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Law Commission suggested all reforms.
Q89. Political parties in India are registered under:
A) Section 29A of RPA, 1951
B) Article 324
C) Tenth Schedule
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Section 29A governs registration.
Q90. Political parties are recognized by:
A) Election Commission
B) Parliament
C) Supreme Court
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: ECI grants recognition.
Q91. Political parties are criticized for lack of:
A) Transparency in funding
B) Internal democracy
C) Accountability
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Parties face all these issues.
Q92. Assertion (A): Electoral bonds increase transparency.
Reason (R): Donor identity is disclosed publicly.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Bonds criticized for anonymity.
Q93. Assertion (A): Political parties must disclose donations above ₹20,000.
Reason (R): RPA, 1951 mandates disclosure.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: RPA mandates disclosure.
Q94. Assertion (A): Criminalization of politics weakens democracy.
Reason (R): Candidates with criminal background undermine governance.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Criminalization undermines democracy.
Q95. Assertion (A): MCC is statutory law.
Reason (R): It is part of Constitution.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: MCC is non-statutory.
Q96. Assertion (A): Political parties must publish candidate criminal records.
Reason (R): Supreme Court directed disclosure.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: SC mandated disclosure.
Q97. Assertion (A): Political parties are essential for democracy.
Reason (R): They organize elections, form governments, and ensure accountability.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Parties are indispensable.
Q98. Assertion (A): Electoral bonds ensure transparency.
Reason (R): Donor identity is hidden.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Bonds criticized for lack of transparency.
Q99. Assertion (A): Political parties must submit audited accounts.
Reason (R): ECI mandates annual audit reports.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Parties must submit audited accounts.
Q100. Assertion (A): Criminalization of politics is a major issue.
Reason (R): It undermines governance and public trust.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Criminalization undermines governance and trust.
Post a Comment
Post a Comment