Commission & Committees
The Commissions & Committees in Indian Polity 125 MCQ master set offers comprehensive coverage of constitutional, statutory, and reform bodies that shape governance and democracy in India. It spans the Finance Commission, Election Commission, UPSC, State PSCs, National Commissions for SCs, STs, OBCs, and Minorities, along with statutory institutions like NHRC, CIC, Lokpal, Law Commission, NITI Aayog, and CVC. The set also includes landmark reform committees such as Balwant Rai Mehta, Ashok Mehta, L.M. Singhvi, Dinesh Goswami, Indrajit Gupta, Vohra, Tarkunde, ARC I & II, Sarkaria, Punchhi, and Mandal, as well as parliamentary committees like PAC, Estimates, Standing, Ethics, and Privileges. Case laws, constitutional articles, and assertion–reason questions ensure analytical depth and exam authenticity. Designed for UPSC, SSC, PSC, and other competitive exams, this master set guarantees syllabus completeness, conceptual clarity, and deployment‑ready content for students and educators.
A) Article 280
B) Article 281
C) Article 282
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Article 280 establishes Finance Commission.
Q2. Finance Commission is appointed by:
A) President of India
B) Prime Minister
C) Parliament
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: President appoints Finance Commission every 5 years.
Q3. Finance Commission recommends:
A) Distribution of taxes between Union & States
B) Grants‑in‑aid to States
C) Measures to augment State Consolidated Fund
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: FC recommends distribution & grants.
Q4. Election Commission of India is provided under:
A) Article 324
B) Article 325
C) Article 326
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Article 324 establishes ECI.
Q5. UPSC is provided under:
A) Article 315
B) Article 316
C) Article 317
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Article 315 establishes UPSC.
Q6. State Public Service Commission is provided under:
A) Article 315
B) Article 316
C) Article 317
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Article 315 establishes State PSCs.
Q7. Appointment of UPSC Chairman & Members is made by:
A) President of India
B) Prime Minister
C) Parliament
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: President appoints UPSC members.
Q8. Tenure of UPSC members:
A) 6 years or until age 65
B) 5 years or until age 60
C) 7 years or until age 70
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Tenure fixed at 6 years or age 65.
Q9. Removal of UPSC members is by:
A) President on Supreme Court inquiry
B) Parliament directly
C) Prime Minister
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Removal only after SC inquiry.
Q10. National Commission for SCs is provided under:
A) Article 338
B) Article 339
C) Article 340
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Article 338 establishes NCSC.
Q11. National Commission for STs is provided under:
A) Article 338A
B) Article 339
C) Article 340
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Article 338A establishes NCST.
Q12. National Commission for Backward Classes is provided under:
A) Article 338B
B) Article 340
C) Article 342
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Article 338B establishes NCBC.
Q13. National Commission for Minorities is:
A) Statutory body
B) Constitutional body
C) Executive body
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: NCM is statutory under 1992 Act.
Q14. Official Language Commission is provided under:
A) Article 344
B) Article 345
C) Article 346
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Article 344 provides for Commission.
Q15. Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities is provided under:
A) Article 350B
B) Article 351
C) Article 352
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Article 350B provides for officer.
Q16. National Commission for Women is:
A) Statutory body
B) Constitutional body
C) Executive body
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: NCW is statutory under 1990 Act.
Q17. National Commission for Protection of Child Rights is:
A) Statutory body
B) Constitutional body
C) Executive body
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: NCPCR is statutory under 2005 Act.
Q18. National Human Rights Commission is:
A) Statutory body
B) Constitutional body
C) Executive body
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: NHRC is statutory under 1993 Act.
Q19. Comptroller & Auditor General of India is provided under:
A) Article 148
B) Article 149
C) Article 150
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Article 148 establishes CAG.
Q20. Attorney General of India is provided under:
A) Article 76
B) Article 77
C) Article 78
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Article 76 establishes AGI.
Q21. Advocate General of State is provided under:
A) Article 165
B) Article 166
C) Article 167
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Article 165 establishes Advocate General.
Q22. Special Officer for SCs & STs was originally under:
A) Article 338 (before amendment)
B) Article 340
C) Article 342
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Originally Article 338 provided for officer.
Q23. Planning Commission was:
A) Executive body (abolished in 2014)
B) Constitutional body
C) Statutory body
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Planning Commission was executive, replaced by NITI Aayog.
Q24. NITI Aayog is:
A) Executive body
B) Constitutional body
C) Statutory body
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: NITI Aayog is executive body.
Q25. National Commission for Safai Karamcharis is:
A) Statutory body
B) Constitutional body
C) Executive body
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: NCSK is statutory under 1993 Act.
Q26. National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) was established under:
A) Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993
B) RPA 1951
C) Constitution directly
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: NHRC is statutory under 1993 Act.
Q27. NHRC Chairperson must be:
A) Former Chief Justice of India
B) Former Supreme Court Judge
C) Former High Court Judge
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Chairperson is former CJI.
Q28. NHRC tenure of members:
A) 5 years or until age 70
B) 6 years or until age 65
C) 7 years or until age 75
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Tenure fixed at 5 years or age 70.
Q29. Central Information Commission (CIC) established under:
A) Right to Information Act, 2005
B) RPA 1951
C) Constitution directly
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: CIC is statutory under RTI Act.
Q30. CIC tenure of Chief Information Commissioner:
A) 5 years or until age 65
B) 6 years or until age 70
C) 7 years or until age 75
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Tenure fixed at 5 years or age 65.
Q31. Lokpal established under:
A) Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013
B) RPA 1951
C) Constitution directly
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Lokpal is statutory under 2013 Act.
Q32. Lokpal jurisdiction covers:
A) Prime Minister (with exceptions)
B) Ministers
C) MPs
D) All of the above
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Lokpal covers PM (with limits), ministers, MPs.
Q33. Lokayuktas are appointed in:
A) States
B) Union Territories
C) Both
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Lokayuktas function at state level.
Q34. Law Commission of India is:
A) Non‑constitutional, non‑statutory body
B) Constitutional body
C) Statutory body
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Law Commission is ad‑hoc, created by executive order.
Q35. First Law Commission of India established in:
A) 1955
B) 1956
C) 1957
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: First Law Commission set up in 1955.
Q36. Current Law Commission number (2025):
A) 22nd
B) 21st
C) 23rd
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: 22nd Law Commission is functioning.
Q37. NITI Aayog established in:
A) 2015
B) 2014
C) 2016
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: NITI Aayog replaced Planning Commission in 2015.
Q38. NITI Aayog functions as:
A) Policy think tank
B) Constitutional body
C) Statutory body
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: NITI Aayog is executive think tank.
Q39. NITI Aayog chaired by:
A) Prime Minister of India
B) President
C) Finance Minister
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: PM chairs NITI Aayog.
Q40. NITI Aayog Vice‑Chairperson appointed by:
A) Prime Minister
B) President
C) Parliament
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: PM appoints Vice‑Chairperson.
Q41. Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) established under:
A) CVC Act, 2003
B) RPA 1951
C) Constitution directly
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: CVC is statutory under 2003 Act.
Q42. CVC Chairperson tenure:
A) 4 years or until age 65
B) 5 years or until age 70
C) 6 years or until age 65
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Tenure fixed at 4 years or age 65.
Q43. Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) derives power from:
A) Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946
B) Constitution directly
C) RPA 1951
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: CBI statutory under DSPE Act.
Q44. Competition Commission of India established under:
A) Competition Act, 2002
B) RPA 1951
C) Constitution directly
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: CCI statutory under 2002 Act.
Q45. Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) established under:
A) SEBI Act, 1992
B) RPA 1951
C) Constitution directly
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: SEBI statutory under 1992 Act.
Q46. Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) established under:
A) TRAI Act, 1997
B) RPA 1951
C) Constitution directly
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: TRAI statutory under 1997 Act.
Q47. National Green Tribunal (NGT) established under:
A) NGT Act, 2010
B) RPA 1951
C) Constitution directly
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: NGT statutory under 2010 Act.
Q48. Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) established under:
A) Water (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
B) RPA 1951
C) Constitution directly
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: CPCB statutory under 1974 Act.
Q49. National Commission for Safai Karamcharis established under:
A) 1993 Act
B) RPA 1951
C) Constitution directly
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: NCSK statutory under 1993 Act.
Q50. National Commission for Minorities established under:
A) 1992 Act
B) RPA 1951
C) Constitution directly
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: NCM statutory under 1992 Act.
Q51. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957) recommended:
A) Three‑tier Panchayati Raj system
B) Two‑tier system
C) Four‑tier system
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Committee recommended three‑tier system (village, block, district).
Q52. Ashok Mehta Committee (1977) recommended:
A) Two‑tier Panchayati Raj system
B) Three‑tier system
C) Four‑tier system
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Recommended two‑tier system (district, mandal).
Q53. G.V.K. Rao Committee (1985) emphasized:
A) Strengthening district planning
B) Gram Sabha empowerment
C) State control
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Emphasized district planning role.
Q54. L.M. Singhvi Committee (1986) recommended:
A) Constitutional status to Panchayati Raj
B) Statutory status only
C) No change
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Recommended constitutional recognition.
Q55. 73rd Amendment Act (1992) was influenced by:
A) L.M. Singhvi Committee
B) Ashok Mehta Committee
C) Both
D) None
✅ Correct: C
Explanation: Both influenced constitutional amendment.
Q56. Dinesh Goswami Committee (1990) focused on:
A) Electoral reforms
B) Panchayati Raj
C) Finance Commission
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Suggested electoral reforms.
Q57. Indrajit Gupta Committee (1998) recommended:
A) State funding of elections (partial)
B) Reservation in Panchayats
C) Finance Commission reforms
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Recommended partial state funding.
Q58. Vohra Committee (1993) highlighted:
A) Criminalization of politics
B) Panchayati Raj reforms
C) Finance distribution
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Reported nexus of crime & politics.
Q59. Tarkunde Committee (1974) recommended:
A) Proportional representation & state funding
B) Reservation in Panchayats
C) Finance Commission reforms
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Suggested PR & funding.
Q60. Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC I, 1966) chaired by:
A) Morarji Desai
B) K. Hanumanthaiya
C) Veerappa Moily
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: ARC I chaired by Morarji Desai.
Q61. ARC I submitted reports on:
A) Machinery of government, district administration, finance
B) Panchayati Raj only
C) Electoral reforms only
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: ARC I submitted 20 reports.
Q62. ARC II (2005) chaired by:
A) Veerappa Moily
B) Morarji Desai
C) Ashok Mehta
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: ARC II chaired by Veerappa Moily.
Q63. ARC II submitted reports on:
A) Ethics, e‑governance, public order, local governance
B) Panchayati Raj only
C) Finance only
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: ARC II submitted 15 reports.
Q64. Sarkaria Commission (1983) focused on:
A) Centre‑State relations
B) Panchayati Raj
C) Finance distribution
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Recommended strengthening federalism.
Q65. Punchhi Commission (2007) focused on:
A) Centre‑State relations
B) Panchayati Raj
C) Finance distribution
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Reviewed Centre‑State relations.
Q66. Mandal Commission (1979) recommended:
A) Reservation for OBCs (27%)
B) Reservation for SCs
C) Reservation for STs
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Recommended 27% reservation for OBCs.
Q67. Indira Sawhney case (1992) upheld:
A) Mandal Commission recommendations
B) Finance Commission reforms
C) Panchayati Raj reforms
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Upheld 27% OBC reservation.
Q68. Kelkar Committee (2002) focused on:
A) Fiscal reforms
B) Panchayati Raj
C) Electoral reforms
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Recommended fiscal consolidation.
Q69. Narasimham Committee (1991 & 1998) focused on:
A) Banking sector reforms
B) Panchayati Raj
C) Electoral reforms
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Suggested banking reforms.
Q70. Malhotra Committee (2003) focused on:
A) Insurance sector reforms
B) Panchayati Raj
C) Electoral reforms
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Suggested insurance reforms.
Q71. Wanchoo Committee (1971) focused on:
A) Black money & tax evasion
B) Panchayati Raj
C) Electoral reforms
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Reported on black money.
Q72. Shah Commission (1977) investigated:
A) Emergency excesses (1975–77)
B) Panchayati Raj
C) Finance distribution
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Investigated Emergency excesses.
Q73. Liberhan Commission (1992) investigated:
A) Babri Masjid demolition
B) Panchayati Raj
C) Finance distribution
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Investigated Babri demolition.
Q74. Nanavati Commission (2000) investigated:
A) Gujarat riots (2002)
B) Panchayati Raj
C) Finance distribution
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Investigated Gujarat riots.
Q75. Justice Verma Committee (2013) focused on:
A) Criminal law amendments post‑Nirbhaya case
B) Panchayati Raj
C) Finance distribution
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Suggested reforms in criminal law.
Q76. Public Accounts Committee (PAC) examines:
A) Annual audit reports of CAG
B) Budget estimates
C) Tax proposals
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: PAC scrutinizes CAG reports on government accounts.
Q77. PAC consists of:
A) 22 members (15 Lok Sabha + 7 Rajya Sabha)
B) 30 members
C) 25 members
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: PAC has 22 members.
Q78. Chairman of PAC is appointed by:
A) Speaker of Lok Sabha
B) Prime Minister
C) President
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Speaker appoints PAC Chairman.
Q79. Estimates Committee examines:
A) Budget estimates
B) CAG reports
C) Tax proposals
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Estimates Committee examines budget estimates.
Q80. Estimates Committee consists of:
A) 30 members from Lok Sabha
B) 22 members
C) 15 members
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: 30 Lok Sabha members form Estimates Committee.
Q81. Committee on Public Undertakings examines:
A) Reports of CAG on PSUs
B) Budget estimates
C) Tax proposals
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Examines CAG reports on PSUs.
Q82. Committee on Public Undertakings consists of:
A) 22 members (15 LS + 7 RS)
B) 30 members
C) 25 members
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: 22 members form the committee.
Q83. Department‑related Standing Committees introduced in:
A) 1993
B) 1991
C) 1995
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Introduced in 1993.
Q84. Number of Department‑related Standing Committees:
A) 24
B) 30
C) 20
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Currently 24 DRSCs.
Q85. Committee on Privileges deals with:
A) Breach of parliamentary privileges
B) Budget estimates
C) Tax proposals
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Deals with privilege issues.
Q86. Committee on Ethics deals with:
A) Conduct of MPs
B) Budget estimates
C) Tax proposals
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Examines ethical conduct of MPs.
Q87. Business Advisory Committee decides:
A) Allocation of time for parliamentary business
B) Budget estimates
C) Tax proposals
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Decides allocation of time.
Q88. Rules Committee deals with:
A) Procedure & conduct of business in House
B) Budget estimates
C) Tax proposals
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Deals with rules of procedure.
Q89. Committee on Petitions examines:
A) Petitions submitted to Parliament
B) Budget estimates
C) Tax proposals
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Examines petitions.
Q90. Committee on Subordinate Legislation examines:
A) Delegated legislation by executive
B) Budget estimates
C) Tax proposals
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Examines delegated legislation.
Q91. Committee on Government Assurances examines:
A) Assurances given by ministers in Parliament
B) Budget estimates
C) Tax proposals
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Examines ministerial assurances.
Q92. Committee on Papers Laid on the Table examines:
A) Papers laid by ministers in Parliament
B) Budget estimates
C) Tax proposals
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Examines papers laid.
Q93. Committee on Welfare of SCs & STs consists of:
A) 30 members (20 LS + 10 RS)
B) 22 members
C) 25 members
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: 30 members form committee.
Q94. Committee on Welfare of OBCs consists of:
A) 30 members (20 LS + 10 RS)
B) 22 members
C) 25 members
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: 30 members form committee.
Q95. Committee on Empowerment of Women consists of:
A) 30 members (20 LS + 10 RS)
B) 22 members
C) 25 members
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: 30 members form committee.
Q96. Committee on Papers Laid on the Table consists of:
A) 15 members (10 LS + 5 RS)
B) 22 members
C) 25 members
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: 15 members form committee.
Q97. Committee on Subordinate Legislation consists of:
A) 15 members (10 LS + 5 RS)
B) 22 members
C) 25 members
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: 15 members form committee.
Q98. Committee on Government Assurances consists of:
A) 15 members (10 LS + 5 RS)
B) 22 members
C) 25 members
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: 15 members form committee.
Q99. Committee on Privileges consists of:
A) 15 members (10 LS + 5 RS)
B) 22 members
C) 25 members
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: 15 members form committee.
Q100. Committee on Ethics consists of:
A) 15 members (10 LS + 5 RS)
B) 22 members
C) 25 members
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: 15 members form committee.
Q101. Article 280 provides for:
A) Finance Commission
B) Election Commission
C) UPSC
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Article 280 establishes Finance Commission.
Q102. Article 315 provides for:
A) Public Service Commissions
B) Finance Commission
C) Election Commission
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Article 315 establishes UPSC & State PSCs.
Q103. Article 338 provides for:
A) National Commission for SCs
B) National Commission for STs
C) NCBC
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Article 338 establishes NCSC.
Q104. Article 338A provides for:
A) National Commission for STs
B) National Commission for SCs
C) NCBC
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Article 338A establishes NCST.
Q105. Article 338B provides for:
A) National Commission for Backward Classes
B) National Commission for Minorities
C) National Commission for Women
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Article 338B establishes NCBC.
Q106. Article 339 provides for:
A) Special Officer for SCs & STs
B) Official Language Commission
C) Finance Commission
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Article 339 deals with SC/ST commissions.
Q107. Article 340 provides for:
A) Commission for Backward Classes
B) Finance Commission
C) Election Commission
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Article 340 provides for BC Commission.
Q108. Article 344 provides for:
A) Official Language Commission
B) Finance Commission
C) Election Commission
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Article 344 establishes Language Commission.
Q109. Article 350B provides for:
A) Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities
B) Finance Commission
C) Election Commission
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Article 350B provides for officer.
Q110. Article 243ZD provides for:
A) District Planning Committees
B) Finance Commission
C) Election Commission
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Article 243ZD establishes DPCs.
Q111. Case law: Indira Sawhney vs Union of India (1992) relevance:
A) Upheld OBC reservation (27%)
B) Finance Commission reforms
C) Panchayati Raj reforms
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Case upheld Mandal Commission.
Q112. Case law: Ashoka Kumar Thakur vs Union of India (2008) relevance:
A) Upheld OBC reservation in educational institutions
B) Finance Commission reforms
C) Panchayati Raj reforms
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Case upheld reservation in education.
Q113. Case law: S.P. Gupta vs Union of India (1981) relevance:
A) Independence of judiciary & commissions
B) Finance Commission reforms
C) Panchayati Raj reforms
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Case emphasized independence.
Q114. Case law: PUCL vs Union of India relevance:
A) Transparency in elections & RTI
B) Finance Commission reforms
C) Panchayati Raj reforms
D) None
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Case upheld transparency.
Q115. Assertion (A): Finance Commission is constitutional.
Reason (R): Provided under Article 280.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Article 280 establishes FC.
Q116. Assertion (A): UPSC ensures merit‑based recruitment.
Reason (R): It is independent constitutional body.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: UPSC independent under Article 315.
Q117. Assertion (A): NHRC is constitutional body.
Reason (R): Established under Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: C
Explanation: NHRC is statutory, not constitutional.
Q118. Assertion (A): CIC ensures transparency.
Reason (R): Established under RTI Act, 2005.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: CIC statutory under RTI Act.
Q119. Assertion (A): Lokpal covers PM without exceptions.
Reason (R): Lokpal Act, 2013 provides full jurisdiction.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: C
Explanation: PM covered with exceptions.
Q120. Assertion (A): Law Commission is constitutional body.
Reason (R): Established by executive order.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Law Commission is neither constitutional nor statutory.
Q121. Assertion (A): NITI Aayog is statutory body.
Reason (R): Established by executive resolution in 2015.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: C
Explanation: NITI Aayog is executive, not statutory.
Q122. Assertion (A): CVC is statutory body.
Reason (R): Established under CVC Act, 2003.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: CVC statutory under 2003 Act.
Q123. Assertion (A): Parliamentary Committees ensure accountability.
Reason (R): They scrutinize government functioning.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: Committees ensure accountability.
Q124. Assertion (A): Mandal Commission recommended SC reservation.
Reason (R): It suggested 27% reservation for OBCs.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: D
Explanation: Mandal Commission recommended OBC reservation.
Q125. Assertion (A): ARC II suggested e‑governance reforms.
Reason (R): Chaired by Veerappa Moily, it submitted 15 reports.
A) Both true, R correct explanation
B) Both true, R not explanation
C) A true, R false
D) Both false
✅ Correct: A
Explanation: ARC II emphasized e‑governance reforms.
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